A pregnant client presents to the emergency department with vaginal bleeding. A transvaginal ultrasound is performed, and the health care provider informs the client that there are normal fetal heart tones noted. The client begins to tear-up and has a worried appearance. To facilitate therapeutic communication, what statement would the nurse make after observing the client’s nonverbal communication?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

I am  evaluating the your nonverbal response to the findings.

Explanation:

Answer 2
Final answer:

The nurse should use therapeutic communication to address the woman's distress and help her understand what the ultrasound results mean. Guiding the discussion towards the fact that the ultrasound has shown normal fetal heart tones can reassure the patient and invite open communication.

Explanation:

In the situation described, the nurse would utilize therapeutic communication strategies to reassess and alleviate the client's distress and increase her understanding of what has been found. An appropriate phrase might be:

"I can see that you're really upset. It's natural to be concerned when you experience issues during pregnancy like vaginal bleeding. However, the ultrasound has indicated that the fetal heart tones are normal. Normally, this is an encouraging sign. Do you want to discuss it further, or do you have any other specific concerns?"

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Related Questions

What is the most effective method used to monitor clients with asthma that they can use at home?

Answers

Answer:

Peak-flow monitor.

Explanation:

Asthma may be defined as the medical condition the breathing airways becomes narrow and produces large amount of mucus. This hinders the normal process of breathing and causes sneezing, coughing.

Peak flow motor is the inexpensive and hand help portable medical device the air flow during one breathe. This can be used by the asthma patients at home. The specific plan for the asthma clients should be in right place and must know the symptom monitoring.

Thus, the answer is peak flow monitor.

You feel the pain of a sprained ankle when ________ relay(s) messages from your ankle to your central nervous system.

Answers

Answer:

Its the Sensory Nerves

Explanation:

You feel the pain of a sprained ankle when nociceptors relay(s) messages from your ankle to your central nervous system.

When you sprain your ankle, the pain is caused by the stretching or tearing of the ligaments that support the ankle joint. The pain is felt when sensors in the ankle send messages to the central nervous system (CNS).

The CNS is made up of the brain and spinal cord. It is responsible for interpreting sensory information and sending signals to the muscles to respond.

The sensors in the ankle are called nociceptors. Nociceptors are specialized cells that are sensitive to pain. When they are activated, they send messages to the CNS along nerve fibers. The CNS interprets these messages as pain.

The pain of a sprained ankle can be mild or severe. It can also be sharp or dull. The pain is usually worse when the ankle is moved. The pain may also be accompanied by swelling, bruising, and stiffness.

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A nurse is teaching skin and basic care to the mother of a 6-month-old infant with eczema. Which statement indicates that the mother needs further teaching?

Answers

Answer: I'll have to be careful not to cut my baby's nails short.

Explanation:

Eczema is a medical condition. The cause of this condition is unknown or may be due to hyperactive allergic immune response seen in hay fever, dermatitis and asthma. This is related with symptoms like appearance of red patches on the skin, itchy and rough skin also the appearance of blisters. The scratching and itching must be avoided as the rupture of blister is likely to ooze out fluid which may cause infection to a large area appear in the form of patch.

According to the given situation, the mother needs further teaching as she should cut the baby's nail so that baby cannot scratch the blister this will prevent the increase in area of infection.

Freud suggested that for those suffering a generalized anxiety disorder, the anxiety is ______.

Answers

Answer:

Free-floating anxiety.

Explanation:

Anxiety may be defined as as a type of the group of the mental disorders, illness or distress that can disturb the normal routine of the life. Anxiety can also be characterized by fear as well.

The emotional state of the chronic stress and the uncertainty arise the free floating anxiety. This is under the category of the  generalized anxiety disorder. This is more dangerous as it is more complex and reactions are not focus in the particular.

Thus, the answer is free floating anxiety.

Answer: Free-floating anxiety

Explanation: Free-floating anxiety is a term used by Freud to describe a type of anxiety that is not attached to any specific object, situation, or event. Instead, it is a general feeling of unease and apprehension that can be difficult to identify and manage.

Increasing blood viscosity (thickness) can be caused by abuse of which ergogenic aid?

Answers

Answer:Synthetic Erythropoietin

Explanation:

EPO as mostly called increases the rate of erythropoesis, that is production of red blood cells.This increases oxygen supply in the body, especially to the muscles cells. it is mostly used by athletes to improve their performances.

However as much RBC is  produced, the cells clog together making the blood thick or viscous .

This lead to circulatory load on the heart which exerted much force higher than normal cardiac  pressure  to pump  into systemic circulation.

This may cause heart heart attack.

the accumulated  aggregated RBC can also  lead to clotting. if this  blocked blood supply to the brain, it may lead to STOKE.

Pessimism and other symptoms of depression can set the stage for negative life events, but at the same time negative life events can also lead to pessimism and other symptoms of depression. The uncertainty of the direction by which these relationships exist indicates the importance of remembering the principle of __________.

Answers

Answer:

Correlation virus causation.

Explanation:

The uncertainty of the direction by which these relationships exist indicate the importance of remembering the principle of correlation virus causation.

After the release of the mature egg, it is guided by the fimbria into the ___________________. 1. uterus. 2. vagina. 3. fallopian tubes. 4. endometrium

Answers

The answer is, 3. Fallopian tubes

Answer:

3. Fallopian tubes.

Explanation:

The uterine tubes, also known as oviducts or fallopian tubes, are the female structures that transport the ova from the ovary to the uterus each month.

provides nonsurgical treatment to detect, prevent, and treat heart and vascular disease.

Answers

Answer: To prevent: lifestyle modification

To Detect: Imaging like X-ray or Echocardiography

To Treat: Drugs

Explanation:

It all depends on the particular cardiovascular conditions in question but generally speaking, there are several non surgical options available.

To Prevent:

Prevention of cardiovascular diseases is practically done non surgically and this is because it’s usually a lifestyle modification and optimization and these includes regular exercises, eating healthy meals and minimizing cigarette smoking

To detect:

Detection of cardiovascular diseases can be carried out by several means amongst which includes Biochemical testing. Here, blood or urine samples can be tested in order to be sure of any ongoing cardiac pathology eg increase in c-reactive proteins.

Another method that can be used include imaging techniques. These include the all popular Xrays to more specific investigations like Echocardiography.

To Treat:

As for treatment, this largely depends on the particular ailment in question but severe drugs like cholesterol modifying medication, aspirin, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers and nitroglycerin can be used and are all non surgical approaches.

According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, successful performance on a simple task requires __________, whereas successful performance on a difficult and complex task requires __________ .
a) low arousal; high arousal
b) moderate arousal; high arousal
c) low arousal; low arousal
d) high arousal; low arousal

Answers

Answer:

D - High Arousal; Low Arousal

Explanation:

The Yerkes Dodson law explains the relationship between arousal and performance. It was posited by Robert M. Yerkes and John Dillingham Dodson in 1908.

The law asserts that there is a direct relationship between arousal and performance. An increase in arousal up to a certain level will enhance performance, and once the optimal threshold is exceeded, performance will begin to decline.

Thus arousal should be kept at a midpoint as too little causes boredom, and too much causes hyperactivity, so moderate arousal is optimal.

A simple task requires higher arousal because it uses less cognitive function and brain power thus higher arousal is required to keep interest; while a difficult task requires low arousal since it requires higher cognitive function, it requires lots of focus and higher arousal is not good for intense focus as it causes hyperactivity.

Final answer:

The Yerkes-Dodson law states that the performance on simple tasks is best with high arousal, while complex tasks require low arousal for optimized performance.

Explanation:

According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, successful performance on a simple task requires high arousal, whereas successful performance on a difficult and complex task requires low arousal. The correct answer is d) high arousal; low arousal. The Yerkes-Dodson law suggests that there is an inverted U-shaped relationship between arousal and task performance, meaning that moderate levels of arousal are optimal for task performance.

However, the peak of the curve shifts depending on the complexity of the task, with higher arousal being more beneficial for simple tasks and lower arousal levels being more advantageous for complex tasks. This is because high arousal can help maintain concentration on simple tasks, while it can be overwhelming and harmful to performance on complex tasks.

Who should advise a driver/operator who may be mentally or physically impaired to seek appropriate assistance?

Answers

Answer:

A Psychiatrist

Explanation:

A psychiatrist is a medical doctor (an M.D. or D.O.) who specializes in mental health, including substance use disorders.

A client with spinal cord injury is experiencing muscle spasticity. Which agent would most likely be ordered?

Answers

Answer:

Baclofen.

Explanation:

Spinal cord may be defined as the tube like structure consists of the nervous tissue that are extended towards the medulla oblongata. Brain and spinal cord together forms the central nervous system of the body.

Any injury in the spinal cord can cause injury in the muscle as well. Baclofen is a drug used for the treatment of the mascular spasm. This drug help in the relaxation of the muscle. The prescribed doasge is taken and the drug can be taken before or after eating the food.

Thus, the answer is baclofen.

11 children had been abducted, sexually assaulted and murdered, the government made a deal with the captured killer and paid him $10,000 for each body he had buried in order to recover the victims. The killer produced 10 bodies. When an outraged public became aware of this transaction the government was forced to recover the money.

Answers

Answer:

Arthur Shawcross

Explanation:

Arthur John Shawcross (June 6, 1945 – November 10, 2008), also known as the Genesee River Killer, was an American serial killer active in Rochester, New York. His first known murders were in 1972 when he killed a young boy and a girl in his hometown of Watertown, New York.

Under the affordable care act, all of the folloowing are the required essential benefits except:________.

Answers

CORRECT QUESTION.

Which of the following statements about the Affordable Care Act is TRUE?

A) The health care law includes reforms to the affordability, availability, and quality of health insurance.

B) The health care law was passed by state legislation and only exists in certain states.

C) The Affordable Care Act is administered through Social Security.

D) The law was created specifically to provide affordable care for senior citizens.

Explanation and Answer;

The health care law includes reforms to the affordability, availability, and quality of health insurance.

Explanation:

The Affordable Care law signed into law by President Obama, March 23rd ,2010.It is usually refered to as the Obamacare.

The law formed the basis for the reformation of the health insurance in the United States for the citizens to be able to afford an improved and quality health insurance.

And aalso introduced measures for regulation of private and public health insurance companies.

What term refers to the set of principles—underpinning Western medical systems and practices—that defines diseases objectively, in accordance with the presence of recognized symptoms, and holds that the healthy body can be restored through scientifically based medical treatment?

Answers

Answer:

The biomedical model of health.

Explanation:

The 'biomedical model of health' is purely concerned to the biological aspect rather than other environmental or social parts.It deals with the techniques and practices that have been performed to 'diagnose and treat' the heath diseases.A human body is an analogy to the machine, the performance of the human body can be increased by the better treatment and maintenance. So, this model of heath is related to the heath professional’s practice to detect and diagnose the heath disease in modern way.

If a minor is caught driving with a BAC between .01% and .08%, he or she will _____.

Answers

Final answer:

If a minor is caught driving with a BAC between 0.01% and 0.08%, they would likely be in violation of the law. While the exact consequences can vary state by state, generally, any detectable level of BAC in underage drivers is considered illegal.

Explanation:

If a minor is caught driving with a BAC (Blood Alcohol Concentration) between 0.01% and 0.08%, this is likely to be considered illegal by most laws and he or she may suffer penalties. This is because in many regions, any detectable level of BAC in underage drivers is unacceptable.

A point of note is that the National Minimum Drinking Age Act of 1984 set the minimum drinking age to twenty-one across the United States.

Some factors that contribute to alcohol intoxication include the social situation and the individual's personality. Generally, the legal intoxication limit is a BAC level of 0.08%, measured by blood or breath testing. However, for minors, the limit may be a lot lower based on state laws.

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After educating a class of nursing students on culture and ethnicity, the instructor determines that the education was successful when the class identifies what as the same as ethnicity?

Answers

Answer:

Ethnic identity.

Explanation:

Ethnic identity may be defined as one of the important identity that are mainly associated with the racial and the ethnic group. This might results in the positive attitude of the individual.

Ethnic identity has the direct effect on the that could might surprise the different individuals. The ethnic identity plays an important role in the education. This might also increase the culture understanding among the students.

Thus, the answer is ethnic identity.  

Answer:

Ethnic identity

Explanation:

Ethnic identity is defined as a sense of belonging based on one's ancestry, cultural heritage, values, traditions, rituals, and often language and religion.

After teaching a group of students about the standard childhood immunizations given today, the instructor determines that the students need additional teaching when they identify which as a common disease for which immunizations are given?
A) Tuberculosis.
B) Poliovirus.
C) Diphtheria.
D) Pertussis.

Answers

Answer:

A. Tuberculosis

Explanation:

  BCG vaccine (Bacillus of Calmette and Guérin) was created in 1921 by Léon Calmette and Alphonse Guérin. Protects against severe forms of tuberculosis, a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which mainly affects the lungs and, if untreated, can cause serious breathing problems, weight loss, weakness and even death. The vaccine is the only type of immunization against the disease and should be given as a single dose.

Pentavalent vaccine protects against 5 diseases: diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, poliovirus and infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b (meningitis, pericarditis, pneumonia, arthritis  and osteomyelitis).

Diphtheria causes inflammation and injury to parts of the airway and may lead to  the death.Pertussis  may progress to severe conditions with pulmonary, neurological, hemorrhagic complications  and dehydrationAnd polio in some cases causes paralysis, especially in the legs.

Consider this scenario: Ron has researched how to move into and hold several yoga poses. However, when he attempts poses, he is unable to manipulate his body into each pose, and has difficulty holding some poses. According to SCT, why does Ron have difficulty holding these poses?

Answers

Answer:

-Ron needs more behavioral capacity to perform the yoga poses

Explanation:

Ron is having difficulty holding these poses because  he needs more behavioral capacity to perform the yoga poses.

SCT means Social Cognitive Theory. It describes the influence of individual learning experiences, reciprocal interaction, environmental factors on individual health behaviors. It provides opportunity for social support by instilling expectations, self-efficacy, reciprocal determinism, observational learning and behavioral capability to achieve behavior change

Behavioral capability or capacity means understanding and having the skill to perform a behavior.

In order for Ron to do yoga poses well he must know what to do and how to do it.

Michelle, a seventy-year-old woman, was a very composed and gentle person. For the past eight months, she has been behaving in a very impulsive and violent manner. She has been experiencing memory problems too. She also exhibits other symptoms of neurocognitive disorder. Michelle is most likely suffering from

Answers

Answer:

Pick's disease

Explanation:

David has a new client in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy. How should he modify the overhead squat assessment for her?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is- The range of motion should be decreased

Explanation:

The options are:

a. The range of motion should be increased

b. The arms should be placed at the sides

c. The range of motion should be decreased

d. The heels should be elevated

The answer is C. The range of motion should be decreased.

The overhead test is a screening assessment used for obtaining general indication of dynamic posture and used periodically to know if exercise interventions are effective. It is a total-body squatting movement which helps to increase core strength and qualify muscle imbalance. It also reinforces proper squatting technique. It is one of recommended exercises for the 2nd Trimester of Pregnancy, they may however need to decrease their range of rotation as her pregnancy progresses.

It also predicts how well a client will do on the Fibromyalgia Syndrome (FMS) which is a chronic condition that causes pain and fatigue and also issues with memory, sleep and mood. Gaining weight and hormonal fluctuations during pregnancy can make symptoms worse.

The most common symptoms of foodborne illness include all the following EXCEPT:______
A) diarrhea
B) vomiting
C) abdominal cramps
D) double vision

Answers

Answer:

D)Double vision.

Explanation:

The most common symptoms of foodborne illness include all the EXCEPT double vision.

What are the 5 major foodborne illnesses?

The top five germs that cause illnesses from food eaten in the United States are norovirus, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens, Campylobacter and Staphylococcus aureus.

Thus, option "D" is correct.

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The pharmacology instructor is talking about interferon. The instructor explains that agents such as interferons have more than one biologic function. What function is NOT associated with interferons?

Answers

Answer: Antiviral, immunomodulatory and anticancer

Explanation:

Interferons are the group of proteins secreated by the host cells in response to viral attack, requirement of modulation of immune system and for prevention of cancerous growth in the body.

In presence of several virus in the body the infected cells produce and release interferons to protect unaffected cells from the infection.

Interferons triggers protective defenses of the immune system that will help in eradicating the pathogens.

The immune system in the presence of interferon finds and kill the melanoma cells of cancer.

Final answer:

Interferons have multiple biologic functions, but tumor surveillance is not associated with interferons.

Explanation:

Interferons have multiple biologic functions, including inhibiting viral replication, signaling neighboring uninfected cells to destroy RNA and reduce protein synthesis, signaling neighboring infected cells to undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death), and activating immune cells. However, tumor surveillance is not a function associated with interferons. Tumor surveillance involves the detection and destruction of cancer cells by the immune system, which is primarily carried out by cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells.

One of the characteristics of a nutritious diet is that the foods provide enough of each essential nutrient, fiber, and energy. This principle of diet planning is called:​ Group of answer choices ​
1. variety.
​2. balance. ​
3. moderation. ​
4. calorie control ​adequacy.

Answers

Answer: The options are enlisted incorrectly

1. variety

2. balance

3. moderation. ​

4. calorie control ​

5. adequacy

The correct answer is adequacy.

Explanation:

Nutrition adequacy can be defined as the sufficient intake of essential nutrients, that are required to fulfill the nutritional requirements for maintaining the optimal health. This involves the sufficient intake of each kind of food so that the body remains free from deficiency.

Other parameters of a diet includes:

Balance: Not too much intake of any kind of food.

Calorie control: Not too much intake of calories.

Moderation: Not too much intake of food containing sugar, salt and fat.

Variety: Intake of as many as different kind of food as possible or including in the diet plan.

Final answer:

The principle of diet planning that focuses on supplying enough essential nutrients, fiber, and energy through foods is known as adequacy. This principle is part of a healthful diet, which also includes balance, moderation, variety, and calorie control, ensuring that the diet is both nutrient-dense and complete.

Explanation:

The principle of diet planning that emphasizes foods providing enough of each essential nutrient, fiber, and energy is called adequacy. Adequacy ensures that a diet is complete by supplying all of the essential nutrients, sufficient fiber, and the calories necessary to maintain a healthy lifestyle. A diet that is adequate is nutrient-dense, meaning it provides a high amount of nutrients for the calories it contains, as opposed to foods that are considered 'empty-calorie' items like sugary drinks.

Contrasting with adequacy are other principles of a healthful diet, such as balance, ensuring that no nutrient is consumed at the expense of another, and moderation, which advises against eating too much or too little. These principles, alongside variety and calorie control, contribute to a nutritious and healthful diet that can support overall well-being and weight management. It's important to not only include a variety of foods within each food group but to also manage the quantity and quality of food consumed.

When new parents first bring their babies home from the hospital, they report the transition being difficult especially due to several things. Which of these is NOT one of the things they report being bothered by?

Answers

Options missing in the question:

a. relatives and friends visiting for hours on end

b. the baby’s interruption of their sleeping

c. how difficult it is to go places

d. hard to express themselves sexually

Answer:

A is correct: relatives and friends visiting for hours on end. The visit to family and friends doesn't make the parents concerned because their visit is for a short time. This factor can not sustain for long.

Explanation:

According to the developmental scientists, the transition to parenthood is a major transition in one's life. Parenthood changes everything such as emotions, behaviors, relationships, identities, etc. Likewise, constant demands of a new baby and sleeplessness cause hormonal changes.

Why other options are most relevant are due to following reasons:

B. It's hard to take enough sleep for new parents because the baby awakes up in short intervals(after every one or two hours) for milk. Sleeplessness makes new parents difficult to make their nerves strong to handle the transition.

C. Traveling with a newborn is not easy because their eating and sleeping routines can be disturbed. They cannot take proper sleep and start crying during traveling. A diaper change in a strange place is also a difficult task for many mothers (parents).

D. Sometimes parents have difficulty finding time for each other. They cannot express their love to each other as they should. This is because caring for a newborn takes all of their time. It is also because they have all of their attention to baby than each other. They are concerned about this one too.

HIV has become an important source of mortality for humans. If AIDS persists as a major factor for humans for many generations in the future, natural selection theory predicts that _____.

Answers

Answer:

Any heritable traits that help humans survive and reproduce in the presence of AIDS should become more frequent over time.

Explanation:

The theory of natural selection is defined as the process whereby organisms better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring. This means that, in this case, people who inherit a trait in their genes that allows them to resist the HIV virus, will be able to survive better and have children.

Unfortunately, there is no record of such a trait existing, and in this case, there is no kind of natural selection that can arise if every human becomes infected.

Final answer:

Natural selection theory predicts that continued exposure to AIDS could lead to an increased prevalence of genetic traits conferring resistance to HIV among the human population. Beneficial mutations and changes in behaviors could contribute to this resistance, with the potential for a noticeable evolutionary impact, especially in regions like sub-Saharan Africa where treatment access is limited.

Explanation:

If AIDS persists as a major factor for humans for many generations in the future, natural selection theory predicts that there would be an increasing prevalence of genetic traits that confer resistance to the virus amongst the human population. This could manifest through various ways, such as the emergence of beneficial mutations that make it more difficult for HIV to infect helper T cells, or changes in sexual behavior and societal practices that reduce transmission rates.

Over time, these changes could result in a proportion of the population with a natural resistance, a concept referred to as evolutionary pressure. However, such a process takes a significant amount of time and the presence of medical interventions, like antiretroviral drugs, could alter the selective pressures by allowing those with the infection to survive and reproduce.

In sub-Saharan Africa, where the prevalence of HIV is highest and access to treatments is more limited, the evolutionary impact may be more distinct compared to regions with widespread access to effective medical care.

Consuming many different fruits and vegetables that provide a broad range of essential nutrients describes what diet planning principle?

Answers

Answer:

Variety

Explanation:

There are six Diet Planning Principles:

AdequacyBalanceCalorie controlModerationVariety

Variety refers to the consumption of a wide diversity of foods to ensure that the body is received many (if not all) the essential nutrients that are needed in a healthy diet.

In this case, the consumption of many different fruits and vegetables that provide a broad range of essential nutrients describes the variety principle of diet planning.

A form of exercise that incorporates both static and dynamic stretching is _____.

Answers

Answer:

Yoga

Explanation:

Dynamic stretching are commonly used as warm up before an exercise. They improve mobility by incorporating active movements while moving the joints and muscles through motion. They can also resemble the type of sport or exercise about to be performed

Static stretching are those stretches in which you maintain a single position for a stretch of time. It is usually done at the end of an exercise session. There is no mobility in static stretches and it is good for releasing stress, increasing flexibility and range of motion.

Yoga which has been confirmed as a form of exercise by experts incorporate both. Many formats of Yoga combine them by maintaining static stretches after which there are active movements of joints and muscles which is dynamic stretching

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) states, "I have had steady weight loss, and I am often too tired to eat." Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for this client?

A. Fatigue related to weight loss secondary to COPD
B. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to fatigue
C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to COPD
D. Ineffective breathing pattern, related to alveolar hypoventilation

Answers

Answer:D. Ineffective breathing pattern, related to alveolar hypoventilation

Explanation:

Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases  is a respiratory disorder of the lungs with difficulty with breathing , if an individual has either emphysema, refractory asthma, chronic bronchitis.

If the alveolar is damaged as in emphysema,oxygen can not be absorbed from the lungs, and it , stretched  to take in oxygen. The lungs lost it elastic recoil  and air  is  trapped in  it

This   leads  to  shortness of breath, and weakness. The weight  loss  is due to  apoptosis of skeletal muscles, in  limited oxygen supply.

Qualitative and quantitative codes for drug testing are found in which of the following CPT sections?

a) Pathology

b) Surgical

c) Anesthesia

d) Medicine

Answers

Answer:

A) Pathology

Explanation:

In a hospital there are different departments, but whenever a doctor needs a sample analysed, whether it is blood, urine, etc. it is sent to the pathology department.

The pathology department will analyse and test the samples they are given, and report back on any suspicious findings. Their are qualitative and quantitative codes for drug testing in this department.

In 3 sentences explain 2 things we can do to strengthen our circulatory system. Make sure you use details in your explanation. EXPLAIN your answer and use clear examples.

Answers

Answer:

The answer would be

Explanation:

If a person wants to improve their circulation:

- Stop smoking tobacco products

- Reduce intake of saturated fats

- Try not to sit still for long periods

Some tips, examples are:

1. Maintaining a healthy weight helps promote good circulation. If a person is overweight, it may negatively affect their circulation.

2. Regular cardiovascular exercise, such as jogging, supports the health of the circulatory system and improves circulation.

3. Eating oily fish

4. The antioxidants in tea promote cardiovascular health and may improve circulation. This is true for both black tea and green tea.

5. Iron is an essential mineral for the circulatory system. It is required to make hemoglobin, one of the major components of red blood cells, which is needed to carry oxygen.

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Un mito Una parbola Una fbula Un cuento de hadas A student assisting with the experiment would observe all of the following about the electron transport chain EXCEPT:A. Electrons are passed from carriers with lower reduction potential to those with higher reduction potential.B. The first electron carrier is also a proton pump.C. All electron carriers are mobile and hydrophobic.D. The electron carriers can transport a maximum of 2 electrons. find the 30th term of the arithmetic sequence with a first term of 4 and a comman difference of 8 What annual growth rate is needed for a country to double its output in each of the following cases? Instructions: In parts a-c, enter your answers as whole numbers. In part d, round your answer to 1 decimal place. a. In 7 years: 10percentb. In 35 years: 2percent.c. In 70 years: 1percentd. In 140 years: 0.5percent. mandy is trying to find 60 she says the answer is 6 because 60=6is mandy correct explain Your pet hamster sits on a record player whose angular speed is constant. If he moves to a point twice as far from the center, then his linear speedA) doubles.B) halves.C) remains the same. A broken water pipe that floods the reception area would be considered which type of threat? The rate that The price increased from the original price to today ______________ theory posits that there are multiple independent paths to a delinquent career and that there are different types and classes of offenders. When did the Philippines attain full independence A food product contains 15 g of carbohydrates, 5 g of protein and 4 g of fat. How many calories are in one serving of this product? A village had a population of 25000 three years ago.During the first year second year and the third year the population increase at a rate of 5%,6% and 8% respectively.What is the present population of the village A sports car is advertised as capable of "reaching 60 mphmph in 5 seconds flat, cornering at 0.85gg, and stopping from 70 mphmph in only 168 feet." A rectangle has a width of 6 units and a length of 2x+8 units. If the area is 108 units squared, what is the value of x? The religion of the Jewish people Select one: A. was the first indisputably monotheistic religion. B. required ritual observances but demanded little in terms of daily ethical behavior. C. gave a prominent place to women as prophets and law-givers. D. required Jewish missionaries to convert nonbelievers. E. rejected the notion of a messiah. Using the data below, we are now going to use our supply/demand framework for US $ to model the movement in the euro per $ exchange rate between December 2007 (the very beginning of the Great Recession) and November 2008 (pretty much the height of the global financial crisis). Note that the data is given in $ per euro and then converted into euro per dollar. For example, $ 1.2 per euro is converted by 1/1.2 = .833 meaning that $1 = .83 euro (this is the vertical axis on your graph, i.e., euro per $).Draw a supply and demand diagram like we did numerous times in the lectures labeling the vertical axis as euro per $, the horizontal axis with Quantity of dollars, the initial supply and demand curves labeled with 12/07, Label this initial intersection point as point A. Now explain what happened to each curve and WHY between 12/07 and 11/08. Label as point B with your supply and demand curves labeled accordingly (Hint: the two obvious facts during this period is that the 1) US was in a deep recession and 2) we were at the height of the (global) financial crisis (in 11/08). Assume all else is constant.Data:12/1/2007 the dollar per euro exchange rate is $1.45, so the euro per dollar exchange rate is 1/1.45 = .69 euros per dollar.11/1/2008 the dollar per euro exchange rate is $1.27, so the euro per dollar exchange rate is 1/1.27=.79 euros per dollar. You have a deck of 52 cards. Whats the probability you draw exactly 1 heart in 2 draws with replacement? How can you make sure you use the appropriate etiquette while being aware of : the organizational structure, values within, methods of communication, diversity of the workforce Steam Workshop Downloader