Answer:
B - Mutations in cells that will become sperm or eggs.
Explanation:
Mutation is the process of changing the nucleotide sequence of DNA. When DNA is mutated, this often causes new alleles to appear, go missing, or be added. These processes are called Substitution, Deletion, and Insertion.
A person you know has been in an automobile accident. After the accident, you notice a dramatic personality change. Before the accident, he was industrious and well liked; after the accident, he is profane, impetuous, and incapable of working toward a goal. Which portion of the brain was most likely damaged?
Answer:
FRONTAL LOBE
Explanation:
The frontal lobe can be located at the anterior part of the brain, extending back to a fissure known as the central sulcus. The frontal lobe functions and helps in coordination of reasoning, motor control, emotion, and language. It contains the motor cortex, which is involved in planning and coordinating movement; the prefrontal cortex, which is responsible for higher-level cognitive functioning; and Broca’s area, which is essential for language production.
Let say for example Kyle is my friend who was a victim of an accident.
Before the accident, he was industrious and well liked BUT after the accident, he is profane, impetuous, and incapable of working toward a goal.
Such changes in personality would be consistent with loss of impulse control which is a significant frontal lobe function. With connections between the planning functions of the frontal lobe and the emotional processes of the limbic system severed, Kyle had difficulty controlling his emotional impulses, attitudes and abiiity of working towards his goals.
Give at least one fact about a plant with the genotype aabbcc.
Answer:
Plant is homozygous recessive at three locus.
Explanation:
In genetic the genes with dominant allele is shown in capital letter and the recessive allele of a gene is shown in lowercase. The two alleles are present at the same locus in a homologous chromosome but these alleles can be homozygous(same) or heterozygous(different).
Here all the alleles are written in small letters which represents that all the alleles are recessive and each gene has the same alleles as aa, bb, and cc which means they are homozygous. Therefore it can be concluded that the plant is homozygous recessive at three loci.
Place the events in the correct sequence.Not all items will be used.
A) Neurotransmitter crosses synaptic cleft
B) Neurotransmitter attaches to receptors on a muscle, neuron, or gland cell
C) Calcium leaves the synaptic knob
D) Neurotransmitter enters synaptic knob by endocytosis
E) Voltage-gated calcium channels open
F) Calcium enters the synaptic knob
G) Synaptic vesicles merge with synaptic knob plasma membrane
H) Neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis
I) Action potential reaches synaptic knob
The sequence of events concerning neurotransmitters are, in order: Action potential reaches synaptic knob, Voltage-gated calcium channels open, Calcium enters the synaptic knob, Synaptic vesicles merge with synaptic knob plasma membrane, Neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, Neurotransmitter crosses synaptic cleft, and Neurotransmitter attaches to receptors on a muscle, neuron, or gland cell.
Explanation:The correct sequence of these events, involving neurotransmitters and the synaptic knob, would be as follows:
I) Action potential reaches synaptic knobE) Voltage-gated calcium channels openF) Calcium enters the synaptic knobG) Synaptic vesicles merge with synaptic knob plasma membraneH) Neurotransmitter is released by exocytosisA) Neurotransmitter crosses synaptic cleftB) Neurotransmitter attaches to receptors on a muscle, neuron, or gland cellThe sequence begins with the action potential reaching the synaptic knob, after which voltage-gated calcium channels open. This causes calcium to enter the knob, and synaptic vesicles to merge with the plasma membrane. The neurotransmitter is then released by exocytosis, crosses the synaptic cleft, and finally attaches to receptors on a neuron, muscle, or gland cell.
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The sequence will be:
I) Action potential reach synaptic knob
E) Voltage gated channels open
F) Calcium enters synaptic knob
G) Vesicles merge with plasma membrane
H) Neurotransmitter releases via exocytosis
A) Neurotransmitter cross synaptic cleft
B) Neurotransmitter attaches to receptors on muscle/neuron/gland
The following sequence describes the events leading to neurotransmitter release and binding in a synapse:
The action potential first reaches the synaptic knob where the voltage gated calcium channels open and causes calcium influx into the synaptic knob. Due to the calcium, the vesicles containing neurotransmitter merges with the plasma membrane causing the release of the neurotransmitter by exocytosis. The neurotransmitter travels the synapse and then bind with the receptor on the post-synaptic neuron/ muscle/ gland.
Thus, the sequence will be:
I) Action potential reach synaptic knob
E) Voltage gated channels open
F) Calcium enters synaptic knob
G) Vesicles merge with plasma membrane
H) Neurotransmitter releases via exocytosis
A) Neurotransmitter cross synaptic cleft
B) Neurotransmitter attaches to receptors on muscle/neuron/gland.
A priority assessment prior to a 70-year-old client being given succinylcholine (Anectine) as adjunct to general anesthesia for surgery is:
Answer:
A priority assessment prior to a 70-year-old client being given succinylcholine (Anectine) as adjunct to general anesthesia for surgery is: renal or hepatic function.
Explanation:
Renal and hepatic diseases have chances of being interfere with the metabolism or in the excretion of the drug. Which have chances of developing toxic effect. The succinylcholine works as a depolarizing skeletal muscle relaxant. This drug works as short term paralysis, it helps in tracheal intubation or electroconvulsive therapy. Renal function is related to the liver disease or cirrhosis, also called hepatorenal syndrome. The hepatic function is the abnormal liver function.
The priority assessment before giving an elderly patient succinylcholine involves checking for potential anesthetic complications and confirming the care plan. Key factors include medical history, current medications, and anesthesia strategy. Endotracheal intubation is used to maintain airway patency during surgery.
Explanation:Before administering succinylcholine (Anectine), it is crucial to perform a thorough priority assessment for any 70-year-old patient as an adjunct to general anesthesia for surgery. Succinylcholine, a depolarizing muscle relaxant, can significantly affect the muscles responsible for breathing and tongue movement, leading to potential airway obstruction. Given the high risk of complications in elderly patients due to decreased physiological reserve and potential comorbidities, a comprehensive assessment must include a review of factors such as the patient's current medications, electrolyte balance, history of neuromuscular diseases, and any history of malignant hyperthermia. Furthermore, prior to induction of anesthesia, the team, including at least a nurse and an anesthesia professional, must orally confirm specific key concerns for the patient's recovery and care, ensuring alignment and preparedness for potential complications.
Additionally, endotracheal intubation is often employed as the safest method for securing the airway during general anesthesia to avoid complications such as tongue relaxation and respiratory muscle paralysis. This allows for controlled respiration and airway protection throughout the surgical process. Once the surgery is complete and anesthesia is withdrawn, patients may experience temporary side effects, such as a sore throat upon waking up.
It is also essential to note that anesthesia care extends beyond the operative period. Following emergency surgery, for instance, healthcare professionals, including the surgeon, can inform the patient's spouse of the patient's condition while the patient is not yet awake.
________ is the form of vitamin K that can be produced in the intestinal tract.
Answer: Flavinoquinone K2
Explanation:
Vitamin K is known for its blood-clotting power. It has two forms:
K1, which occurs in green vegetables, fruits and cereals.
K2, which is found in some intestinal bacteria.
Therefore, Flavinoquinone K2 is the answer
The energy required for the mechanism of "active transport" comes from: 1.the reactants which yield ATP 2. the product of ATP decomposition 3. photosynthesis 4. cytokinesis
Answer: 2. the product of ATP decomposition
Explanation:
The Adenosine triphospahte ATP is an energy currency made up,of 3 phospahte ions bonded to adenosine molecule
Each of these inorganic ions is bonded to Adenosine molecule by certain bond energy.Therefore the hydrolysis of these phosphate ions release equal amount of ENERGY of value
ATP HYDROLYSIS ADP + P(ions)
(30,5kj/mol) of energy for the first 2 inorganic phosphate hydrolysed, and 14.2kjmol for the last inorganic phosphate.
Terrance, whose birth mother drank alcohol heavily throughout pregnancy, has a thin upper lip, short eyelid openings, a small head, and a smooth philtrum. His physical growth has been slow, and he shows impairments in memory, attention span, motor coordination, and social skills. Terrance has ________.
a. partial fetal alcohol syndrome
b. alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder
c. fetal alcohol syndrome
d. cytomegalovirus
Answer:
fetal alcohol syndrome
Explanation:
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a syndrome that is a group of different symptoms or conditions that appear in a person whose mother consumed alcohol during pregnancy. The different problems that a person may suffer from including small head size, short height, thin upper lip, smooth philtrum, etc. Besides this, the mental health of the person is also affected and thus, the person may have memory impairment, social anxiety, etc. Since it has been mentioned that Terrance's mother consumed alcohol throughout pregnancy and the symptoms that Terrance shows also are similar to that of a person suffering from Fetal alcohol syndrome, it can be concluded that he is suffering from this condition.I also need this quick and there will be a Brainliest.
What can be expected for the recessive trait of monohybrids from the F2 generation?
all dominate traits
all recessive traits
1/3 dominant
1/4 recessive
Have a wonderful Christmas and tusen takk for the help!
1/4 recessive can be expected for the recessive trait of mono hybrids from the F2 generation.
Option D
Explanation:Mono hybrid cross is defined as the crossing between two plants considering the two different alleles of a particular character. It was 1st performed by Father of Genetics, Sir Gregor Mendel. The mono hybrid cross done by him considered the character tallness of garden pea plants, of which one was tall and other was short.
He crossed them to get all tall plants in [tex]1^{st}[/tex] Filial generation. Now as he self bred those plants, he got the tall and short plants in ratio of 3:1. Thus he proved that the recessive trait of mono hybrids is [tex]1/4^{th}[/tex] of the total population of F2 generation.
Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells?
A. the difference in plasma membranes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
B. the evolution of larger cells after the evolution of smaller cells
C. the observation that longer cells usually have greater cell volume
D. the need for a surface area of sufficient area to allow the cell's function
E. the evolution of eukaryotes after the evolution of prokaryotes
Answer:
D. the need for a surface area of sufficient area to allow the cell's function
Explanation:
Many cellular functions such as the exchange of substances and respiratory gases, absorption of nutrients, cell-cell communication, etc. require the cells to have a sufficient surface area. A small cell has a larger surface area to volume ratio and therefore, maintains a higher rate of exchange of substances. As the cell increases in size, the surface area grows less than its volume. Therefore, the surface area required to perform the cellular functions puts an upper limit on the cell size.
Cells maintain the required surface area by dividing and/or by developing folding or projections on the surface. For instance, the cells in the wall of the small intestine require to maintain a higher surface area for nutrient absorption. Therefore, the cells of the wall of the small intestine develop microvilli to have a larger surface area which in turn supports a relatively higher rate of absorption.
What health problems contraindicate the use of fibrates for the treatment of dyslipidemia? Select all that apply.A.Niacin B. Prolin C.Diasin D.none of above
Answer:D
Explanation:None of The above
___________secrete histamine and heparin, and constitute less than 1% of all white blood cells.
Answer:
Basophils
Explanation:
Basophils are the granular leukocytes that make 0-1% of the total white blood cells. Basophils are 10–12 μm in diameter and are the spherical cells with lobed nuclei. When Wright stained, basophils appear to have large, irregularly shaped, deep-blue granules in their cytoplasm. These granules take up the basic stain and hence these cells are called basophils.
Basophils release histamine and heparin. Histamine is associated with allergic reactions. Histamine also dilates blood vessels and triggers contraction of smooth muscle. Heparin inhibits clotting and promotes blood flow. Together, histamine and heparin promote blood flow to injured tissues.
Standard Precautions: Bloodborne Pathogens and Other Potentially Infectious Materials (PA) - KnowledgeQ
Answer:
These are the following precautions that must be taken during the blood borne Pathogens and Other Potentially Infectious Materials:
The area that are exposed with the pathogens must be washed with the water and soap. The exposure source must be notified to the lab assistant or supervisor.The unprotected sex must be avoided to prevent the transmission of the pathogen from mother to the fetus.The finger or the area must be rubbed with the alcohol and must be involved in the daily routine of the hand hygiene.The individual should not eat or apply anything on the wounded area exposed with the pathogens.Some blood borne pathogens are hepatitis B virus, bacteria and some pathogens as well.The correct answer is option (b) Out of the listed practices, the most essential for minimizing exposure to bloodborne pathogens and OPIM is Wearing personal protective equipment (PPE) such as gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection.
Personal protective equipment (PPE) creates a physical barrier between the healthcare worker and potentially infectious materials. Gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection all play a crucial role in preventing contact with blood, bodily fluids, and other potentially infectious materials.
Reusing gloves after disinfection (a) is not recommended. Disinfection might not be effective in eliminating all pathogens, and reused gloves could become contaminated.
Disposing of sharp objects in regular trash bins (c) is a safety hazard. Sharps containers are specifically designed to safely collect and dispose of sharp objects to prevent accidental needle sticks and injuries.
Eating and drinking in areas where OPIM are handled (d) is a hygiene concern. These areas could be contaminated, and ingesting contaminated materials increases the risk of infection.
Therefore, wearing appropriate PPE is the most important practice to minimize exposure to bloodborne pathogens and OPIM in a healthcare setting.
The complete question is:
Which of the following practices is essential for minimizing the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens and other potentially infectious materials (OPIM) in a healthcare setting?
a) Reusing gloves after proper disinfection
b) Wearing personal protective equipment (PPE) such as gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection
c) Disposing of sharp objects in regular trash bins
d) Eating and drinking in areas where OPIM are handled
n commensalism _________.
A. the host and commensal can be separated and remain viable
B. the commensal is metabolically dependent on the host
C. the host provides some factor that the commensal cannot get otherwise
D. the host and commensal cannot be separated and remain viable and the commensal is metabolically dependent on the host
Answer:
A. the host and commensal can be separated and remain viabe
Explanation:
Commensalism is a biological interaction ( i.e symbiosis) in which members of one species gain benefits while those of the other species neither benefit or are harmed.
The species that benefits from the association in order to obtain nutrients, shelter, support, or locomotion from the host species is known as the Commensal. The commensals are usually unaffected.
The Host species is usually a larger animal. An example of commensal interaction with it host species can be found between shark and remora fish. The remora fish attachs itself to the shark in order to engulf remnant of food materials eaten by the shark and also to be protect BUT at the same time that doesn't makes remora to be attached forever to shark,the commensal can detach whenever it wants to.
Another example can be distinguished from birds (commensal) and grazing herbivorous animal (host). Numerous birds perch on bodies of large mammal herbivores or feed on the insects turned up by grazing mammals BUT the host and commensal can be separated and remain viabe.
N Commensalism A. the host and commensal can be separated and remain viable.
In commensalism, one species benefits and the other is unaffected. The host and commensal can be separated and remain viable, distinguishing it from other symbiotic relationships.
In commensalism, one species benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed. The correct answer is A. the host and commensal can be separated and remain viable. This distinguishes commensalism from other types of symbiosis where there might be metabolic dependency or mutual necessity for survival.
The Graph shows three models of world population growth.
according to the UN projections, at what point might earth first see a catastrophic drop in population?
A. Around 2020
B. Around 3000
C. Around 2060
D. The graph does not show a drop in population.
Answer:
The current option is A) Around 2020
Explanation:
The graph in the diagram shows that around 2020, there might be an up rise in the population of the world or there might be a catastrophic drop in the population of the earth. The reason for this decline is not mentioned in the graph. Bit it can be seen in the graph that out of the three models of world population growth, one of the models depicts a catastrophic decline in population around 2020.
Answer:
C. Around 2060
Explanation:
I took the test and the UN Low appears to have a steeper decrease starting around 2060.
A virus which incorporates its DNA into the DNA of its host organism is existing as a _____.
Answer:
The virus is existing as a prophage.
Explanation:
The prophage is formed when there is formation of plasmid or insertion of chromosome. This prophage is linked with lysogenic conversion.
Note that, when an organism is able to survive in their host through the integration of their DNA to the chromosome of the host is known as the lysogenic conversion.
A medical researcher is investigating the chemical and physical properties of substance that she isolated from the surface of charcoal-grilled meat. When the scientist mixes a small amount of the substance with living human cells, the chemical causes the rapid breakdown of the cells' plasma membranes. She is able to prevent this reaction by adding vitamin C to the mixture of the substance chemical and cells. Based on this information, the scientist has
Answer:
the scientist has determined that the chemical isolated from charcoal-grilled meat is an oxidant.
Explanation:
oxidants are oxidizing agents. oxidants have the capacity to damaging living cells. vitamin C on the other hand is an active antioxidant, hence it was able the breakdown of the cells.
Gradual long-term changes in altered or destroyed ecosystem. True or False
Answer:
Although these changes are sometimes occur very quickly, in most cases species replace others gradually, resulting in long-term changes in ecosystems. These gradual long-term changes in altered ecosystems are called ecological successions. Ecosystems tend to change with time until a stable system is formed.
Explanation:
False. I think
Gradual long-term changes in altered or destroyed ecosystems, which are true when ecosystems are disrupted or destroyed due to natural or human-induced factors such as habitat loss, pollution, climate change, or invasive species, can lead to significant and long-lasting changes in the structure and functioning of those ecosystems.
Ecosystems are composed of intricate relationships and interactions between organisms and their environment. When these relationships are disrupted, it can have cascading effects throughout the ecosystem. The loss of key species, changes in nutrient cycles, alterations in food webs, and shifts in ecological processes can occur over time, resulting in gradual, long-term changes.
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Which of the following is mis-matched?
a. astrocytes - blood-brain barrier
b. ependymal cells - choroid plexus
c. ependymal cells - produce cerebrospinal fluid
d. oligodendrocytes - form myelin sheaths
e. microglia - provide support for the neuron cell body
Answer: the correct option is E. Microglia doesn't provide support for the neurone cell body.
Explanation:Microglia are located throughout the brain and is a type of neuroglia (glial cell).
As the resident macrophage cells, they act as the first form of active immune defense in the central nervous system (CNS). Their immune functions includes
The formation and action of angiotensin II can be summarized as follows: It is synthesized either when blood pressure is ____________ or the ____________ division is activated. It causes a(n) ____________ in resistance, ____________ in fluid output (which helps to maintain blood volume and blood pressure), and an increase in blood ____________ (if fluid intake occurs). Consequently, blood ____________ increases. This is aided by the release of both ____________ and aldosterone. As blood pressure returns to within normal homeostatic levels, both renin release and angiotensin II synthesis are decreased by ____________ feedback.
Angiotensin II conflation is touched off by low blood pressure or sympathetic activation, leading to increased blood resistance, dropped fluid affair, and, if fluid input occurs, increased blood volume and pressure. This process is supported by the release of ADH and aldosterone and is regulated by negative feedback.
The conformation and action of angiotensin II can be epitomized as follows It's synthesized either when blood pressure is low or the sympathetic division is actuated. It causes a( n) increase in resistance, drop in fluid affair( which helps to maintain blood volume and blood pressure), and an increase in blood volume( if fluid input occurs). Accordingly, blood pressure increases. This is backed by the release of bothanti-diuretic hormone( ADH) and aldosterone. As blood pressure returns to within normal homeostatic situations, both renin release and angiotensin II conflation are dropped by negative feedback.
A human liver cell and a human skin cell in the same person have the same genetic sequences.However these cells are different because the liver cell:________.a) has more dominant traits than the skin cell b) can reproduce but the skin cell cannot c) carries out respiration but the skin cell does not d) uses different genes than the skin cell
Answer:
d) uses different genes than the skin cell
Explanation:
All the cells of the body of a multicellular organism such as humans have the same DNA. Irrespective of the presence of the same genetic sequences, the cells of different organs perform different functions and may also differ in their structural details. This is because a distinct set of genes is expressed in different cell types. The tissue or organ-specific gene expression imparts the cells of skin and liver their structural and functional distinctions from each other.
Which type(s) of respiration use glycolysis, the Krebs cycle and electron transport?
Answer:
The correct answer is aerobic respiration.
Explanation:
There are two types of respiration aerobic and anaerobic. In aerobic respiration, oxygen is required and in anaerobic respiration oxygen is absent. Aerobic respiration consists of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and electron transport system.
Glycolysis is the common process in both the type of respiration in which glucose is partially oxidized into pyruvate. Then in aerobic respiration, this pyruvate is completely oxidized into CO2 during the Kreb cycle and NADH and FADH2 is generated which is used in oxidative phosphorylation to generate ATP.
In anaerobic respiration, pyruvate molecules are used to generate alcohol or lactic acid and ATP and this process is called fermentation. Therefore the right answer is called aerobic respiration.
One subcortical area that undergoes substantial neuron loss during aging is the ______.
Answer:
Basal forebrain region.
Explanation:
Aging is the natural process of getting older and all organisms has to undergo the process of aging. The shortening in the telomere length and reactive oxygen species is involved in the aging process.
The biochemical changes of the body get slows down and individual has low energy stored in their body. The neuron loss is common that result in the loss of memorizing power with aging. The neurons of the basal forebrain region gets destroyed during the aging process.
Thus, the answer is basal forebrain region.
12. How does the chromosome number in daughter cells compare to the parent cell in mitosis and meiosis?
Answer:
Daughter cell have the same number of chromosomes as parent cells in mitosis, whereas in meiosis, daughter cells have only half the number of chromosomes as the parent cells.
Explanation:
Mitosis produces 2 diploid cells, whereas meiosis produces 4 haploid cells.
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In mitosis division produce diploid daughter cells while meiosis produce haploid daughter cells.
Meiosis:
It is a type division in which cell divide into 4 haploid daughter cells.
The daughter cells are haploid. Haploid means half of number the chromosome in daughter cells. It is found in the germ cells to produce the sperm and ovum.Mitosis:
It is the division in which cell divide to form 2 diploid daughter cells. This means in mitosis number of chromosomes in daughter cells is same as parents.
Therefore, in mitosis division produce diploid daughter cells while meiosis produce haploid daughter cells.
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use diagram, answer questions
Answer:cell 9 is not missing any organelles compared to cell 1.
Cell 2 would not function normally because it lacks the mitochondria which is the powerhouse necessary for energy production & hence growth & survival.
Cells 4 & 7 lack the rough endoplasmic reticulum responsible for protein formation hence amino acids which are the building blocks of life will not be produced.
Explanation:
Chloroplasts collect sunlight in order to power photosynthesis. In a typical plant, which type of cell would you expect to have more chloroplasts?
Answer:
The correct answer is - palisade cells that are type leaf cells.
Explanation:
The outer layer of cells does not contain chloroplast that is a protective layer called the epidermis. The palisade layer is immediate to the top layer of the leaf that contains most of the chloroplast in comparison to the other parts of the roots or leaf cells.
Chloroplast contains chlorophyll that collects sunlight in order to initiate photosynthesis. There are different types of chlorophyll types present in the cell of the plant.
Thus, the correct answer is - palisade cells that are type leaf cells.
In order to be successful on land, plants had to develop a cuticle to avoid water loss, spores, and seeds to protect their genetic material, and vascular tissues, such as _________________________ to transport material from the land to every part of their structures.
Answer:xylem andvphloem
Explanation
Vascular tissues are conducting vessels in plants.They are complex in structure.
The xylem.conduct water and minerals uphill from the soil to other parts of the plants
The phloem conduct products (nutrients)of photosynthesis ( glucose) down from the leaves to other parts of the plants.
Raw shell eggs must be received in refrigerated equipment that keeps them at a temperature of _______ or less. A. 41°f B. 45°f C. 50°f D. 70°f
Answer:
B. 45°f
Explanation:
It is recommended that raw shell eggs must be stored at a temperature of 45°f or less because this ensures that the eggs will retain their quality over a long period of time. The quality of the eggs is maintained below 45°f because cool temperatures help to slow the growth of several bacteria and also helps to avoid the degradation of the eggs. The rate of degradation at higher temperatures is such that at higher temperatures the loss of quality in one day is equivalent to the loss of quality in one week when kept at temperatures lower than 45°f.To receive raw shell eggs, they must be stored in coolers that keep the air temperature at 46°C or below.
Eggs are one of the healthiest foods on the planet and can be an important part of a balanced diet. However, eggs are perishable, like raw meats, poultry, and fish. Fresh, unbroken, clean shell eggs may be contaminated with Salmonella enteritidis (SE), which can lead to foodborne illness.
Although the number of affected eggs is relatively low, there have been some cases of foodborne illness in recent years. To avoid food-borne illness, eggs must be handled safely, kept refrigerated promptly, and cooked thoroughly.
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Many of the organic molecules associated with life can be created spontaneously under certain conditions. What do these conditions resemble?A) Earth's coreB) Primordial EarthC) The sunD) A comet
Answer: B) Primordial Earth
Explanation:
The primordial or primitive earth had a reducing and hot atmosphere. Scientists think that the lightening spark of sunlight could be responsible for conducting chemical reaction in the atmosphere consists of gases like ammonia, water, methane and carbon dioxide which is responsible for the production of the organic molecules. Stanley Miller and Harold Urey conducted an experiment to prove the fact that the organic molecules could have formed from the inorganic constituents present in the earth primitive atmosphere.
The area or kind of community that would have the highest portion of the species reproducing by asexual means is a: a) tropical forest b) fir forest c) pine forest d) tundra.
Answer:
Option D, Tundra
Explanation:
Tropical forests have trees of great height and broad leaves of green color. These broad leaves trees generally reproduce asexually by vegetative means such as reproduction from leave, stems, or roots. However, some have the capability to reproduce sexually as well
Pine trees have male and female sexes on the same plant, hence they reproduce sexually.
Tundra has low scope for tree and plants growth. Hence, it mainly consists of Lichens, mosses and shrubs. Mosses reproduce by producing spores, lichen and shrubs also reproduce asexually.
Hence, option D is correct
Answer:
tundra
Explanation:
Tetraethylammonium (TEA) is a potent neurotoxin that results in death from respiratory failure within 10 to 30 minutes. When a neuron is incubated with TEA, researchers observed that action potentials could be generated, but that the membrane potential remained positive and never returned to the resting membrane potential. Use this information to answer the following question. What channel is TEA likely acting on?
Answer: B Voltage gated potassium channels.
A) voltage-gated sodium channels
B) voltage-gated potassium channels
C) sodium potassium pumps
D) chloride channels
Explanation:
Tetraethylammonium is a pH- potassium channel blocker;which prevents escape of potassium ions from the intracellular layer of the axon,by blocking the channels. This increases positive ion concentration of the inner axon,( together with other positive charged molecules in the axoplasm). since potassium is a positively charged and intracellular ion
Due to the fact that(TEA) is pH -potassium ion blocker; it has no inhibitory effect on the voltage-gated sodium ion channels, so action potential can progresses. But after the sodium gated channels were closed, action potential drops but the concentration of positive charged potassium ions increases because-
They cannot leave the axoplasm since the potassium votage gated channels has been shu by (TEA)t. This stabilizes the membrane potential, and prevented the cells from returning to resting membrane potential .