Answer:
The correct answer is a. retinal disparity
Explanation:
Humans have two eyes that see the image at slightly different angles and for perception depth it is important to see the object from both the eyes. Retinal disparity is the way which helps in depth perception.
In this situation, the image seen by both the eyes at different angles is processed by the brain and after processing it is seen as a single image with the correct depth of the image. In many situations retinal disparity comes into play like diving.
Therefore if a person lacks an eye then retinal disparity is the visual cue that would be lacked by him.
A person with sight in only one eye lacks retinal disparity for seeing in depth.
Depth perception is first produced by retinal disparity, that is, the difference between the images of the two eyes, from which this difference is transformed into depth perception or stereopsis.
That is, retinal disparity is the difference in monocular images produced by the projection of points of the visual field provided by both eyes.
The lateral shift of the eyes provides two slightly different views of the same object (slightly different retinal images).Retinal disparity is essential for stereoscopic depth perception resulting from the fusion of slightly disparate images.Therefore, we can conclude that a person with sight in only one eye lacks retinal disparity.
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An operation leader responsibility for controlling food safety risk begins when.. The food is received at the restaurant or employee begins to prepare it
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The responsibility for controlling food safety risk for an operation leader begins as soon as the food is received at the restaurant. The leader must also supervise the preparation process to ensure safe handling and cooking practices.
Explanation:An operation leader in a restaurant setting has a significant responsibility for controlling food safety risk. This responsibility begins as soon as the food is received at the restaurant. At that point, the operation leader should ensure that the food comes from approved sources, is not contaminated, and is at the correct temperature. When the food is prepared by the employees, the operation leader must also supervise the process to ensure that correct food handling and cooking techniques are employed, and proper hygiene practices are followed. Prevention of cross-contamination and ensuring proper cooking temperatures are also key aspects of their role in food safety.
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What should the insured do if the insurer fails to send the correct forms, under the Claims Forms provision of a health policy?
Answer:
Submit the claim in any form.
Explanation:
Health insurance may be defined as the insurance that covers almost the partial or the whole risk of the person's medical expense. The routine finance structure is developed in the health policy.
Health insurance can be maintained by both the private and the government agencies. The monthly premium is specified to get the health insurance. If the insurer is failed to send the correct forms then he submit the insurance claim in any form.
Thus, the answer is submit the claim in any form.
help, please!!
Skill-related fitness components include agility, balance, ________, and reaction time.
flexibility
coordination
muscular endurance
body composition
Answer:
B
Explanation:
It is coordination.
Which eating disorder involves eating a large amount of food and then purging? A overeating B bulimia nervosa C binge eating D anorexia nervosa
Answer:
Bulimia Nervosa is a eating disorder that involves eating a large amount of food and then purging, vomiting or other methods to avoid weight gain.
Explanation:
At a meeting in Palmis Inc., the decision to launch a new product that prevents tooth decay was being debated. A product development specialist said "What a wonderful product! We have created a formulation that will help Americans protect their teeth. I don't know why those health critics are accusing us of introducing a potentially harmful product to the market. After all, our goal is to help people, not harm them. We want to do what is in the best interest of the public." Which of the following symptoms of groupthink does she demonstrate by this speech?
Answer:
A belief in the inherent morality of the group
Explanation:
Groupthink is generally evident when the sense of the concept “we” in a group is strong, so people want to have always good terms with the group. The objective is to maintain the group in a harmonic way and the individual thoughts are usually sacrificed for groupthink.
There are different items to take into account when analyzing groupthink, one of them is belief in inherent morality of the group, this means that it is thought whatever the group decides to do is the right thing to do since everybody knows what is right and what is not, sometimes, this situation makes them ignore consequences on their decisions .
Option C is correct. The product development specialist's speech exhibits the symptom of belief in inherent morality.
This symptom of groupthink involves the unquestioned belief that the group's decisions are morally superior. In this case, the specialist dismisses health critics' concerns and emphasizes the altruistic intention behind the product, asserting that the goal is to help people. This indicates a belief that their actions are inherently right and just, ignoring potential risks or negative consequences. The specialist does not entertain the possibility that the product could be harmful, illustrating a moral righteousness that aligns with the belief in inherent morality.
This kind of thinking can lead to overlooking valid criticisms and failing to critically assess the potential downsides of a product or decision. Unlike other symptoms such as illusion of invulnerability, self-censorship, or direct pressure on dissenters, which involve either overconfidence, withholding doubts, or coercing agreement, belief in inherent morality specifically relates to the unquestioned ethical stance of the group, as demonstrated by the specialist's statements.
The complete question is:
At a meeting in Palmis Inc., the decision to launch a new product that prevents tooth decay was being debated. A product development specialist said "What a wonderful product! We have created a formulation that will help Americans protect their teeth. I don't know why those health critics are accusing us of introducing a potentially harmful product to the market. After all, our goal is to help people, not harm them. We want to do what is in the best interest of the public." Which of the following symptoms of groupthink does she demonstrate by this speech?
A. Illusion of invulnerability
B. Self-censorship
C. Belief in inherent morality
D. Direct pressure on dissenters
When people who are allergic to pollen come in contact with pollen, their eyes begin to water and itch due to the release of?
Answer:
histamines from body cells
Explanation:
._.
A drug screening test performed on a urine sample can detect the presence of
Answer:
May detect amphetamines or methamphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, cocaine, marijuana, MDA-analogues (MDA or MDMA), opiates (codeine, morphine, 6-acetylmorphine [indicative of heroin use], hydromorphone, hydrocodone, oxymorphone, oxycodone), nicotine, or alcohol.
Explanation:
A drug screening test performed on a urine sample can detect numerous substances including glucose and cortisol. This is accomplished using urine test strips or through a common method known as urinalysis. Some substances the tests can detect are indicative of diabetes, bacterial infections, and kidney complications.
Explanation:A drug screening test performed on a urine sample can detect the presence of a number of substances. Like the use of urine test strips, other tests such as Benedict's test can be performed to detect and quantify the presence and quantity of glucose in urine, which correlates to diabetes in high quantities. Testing for other substances such as the adrenal hormone cortisol may require a 24-hour urine collection.
Regarding urinalysis, a simple and common urine test, it can detect various elements such as protein, glucose, pH, and even cellular elements including red and white blood cells. In the case of infections, specific tests are carried out to identify the type of bacteria, if present, or if kidney impairment is suspected, further extensive tests are conducted.
Urine test strips can be used to detect abnormal levels of certain components in urine, for instance, nitrites that point to certain bacterial infections, albumin indicating a kidney infection or kidney failure, high sodium concentrations suggesting kidney failure, and the presence of white blood cells and blood indicative of a urinary tract infection or other urinary system disorder.
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the initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney occurs primarily by
Answer:
The correct answer is- passive flow due to pressure difference
Explanation:
The movement of water and different solute from the blood to the renal tubules or the renal corpuscles is called filtration. This filtration occurs due to the difference in the blood pressure in glomerular capillaries.
As the blood pressure increases in the glomerulus, the hydrostatic pressure also rises in the glomerulus which increases the filtration rate in glomerulus so more blood gets into glomerulus due to this pressure.
Therefore as the blood pressure increase in the glomerulus, the filtration rate also increases. So the initial filtration step in the glomerulus occurs primarily by passive flow due to pressure difference.
The initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney occurs primarily by passive flow due to a pressure difference. The correct option is A.
Blood is filtered under pressure in a filtering unit called the glomerulus. There is a pressure gradient because the blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries is higher than the blood pressure in the Bowman's capsule.
The passive flow of fluid and solutes past the filtration barrier is driven by this pressure gradient.
Hydrostatic pressure pushes water, ions, and tiny molecules through the filtration barrier made up of the glomerular endothelium, basement membrane, and podocytes as blood passes through the glomerular capillaries.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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Your question seems incomplete, the probable complete question is:
The initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney occurs primarily by:
A.passive flow due to a pressure difference.
B.passive flow resulting from a countercurrent exchange system.
C.active transport of water, followed by movement of electrolytes along a resulting concentration gradient.
D.active transport of electrolytes, followed by passive flow of water along the resulting osmolarity gradient.
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write in your own words!!
You have been infected with the H1N1 flu virus. Describe how this virus might have entered your body, how it works to make you sick, and what happens when you finally get better. List at least 7 different steps.
Answer: your start to feel dizzy and have nasal pain, it also makes you have a headache in your right temple.
When you feel better you are still a lil dizzy but the headache goes away,
The issue of "healthcare portability" focused on protecting healthcare coverage for employees who change jobs and allowing them to carry their existing plans with them.
1. True
2. Flase
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 aims to improve, protect, and control things related to healthcare insurance. One of the things that the Act protects is the healthcare coverage that a person and his/her family have when he or she changes jobs.
How does the body respond to a diet that is high in saturated fat?
A. It raises unsaturated fat levels.
B. It reduces calorie counts.
C. It produces more cholesterol.
D. It stores more amino acids.
Answer:
c. it produces more cholesterol
Explanation:
Eating foods that contain saturated fats raises the level of cholesterol in your blood. High levels of LDL cholesterol in your blood increase your risk of heart disease and stroke.
Which stage of physical activity does an individual need to reach to attain a positive metabolic response?
contemplation
precontemplation
planner
activator
Answer:
A Contemplation
Explanation:
Answer: Activator
Explanation: My teacher told me this was right
A weightlifter is using heavy weights in short bursts for a competition. Because his muscle cells are not able to take in enough oxygen to make very much atp the weightlifter begins to get fatigue in his muscles. Which processes is most likely going on in the muscles of the weightlifter as he competes in his event?
Answer:
As the cells run out of oxygen they switch to anaerobic respiration, which allows the cell to make small amounts of •ATP in the absence of oxygen.
Explanation:
Anaerobic respiration is used by cells in the absence of ATP. This process converts sugars to alcohol and only creates a small amount of ATP compared to aerobic respiration.
What percentage of the US population is estimated not to engage in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity?
Answer:
The estimated percentage is 75%.
Explanation:
It is very common for American people to have a sedentary lifestyle. This is especially true for people who are working in the managerial position. The availability of fast food everywhere is also one factor. It is said that 75% of the US population is estimated not to engage in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity. This estimation fluctuates according to age, gender and occupation. Another contributing factor to having less physical activity is the rate of unemployment. People who are unemployed find it hard to focus on exercise or physical activity. Instead, they divert their energy towards looking for work.
It is essential to have at least 30 minutes of low-to-moderate exercise 5 times a week in order to stay healthy. America's situation makes them more susceptible to chronic diseases such as diabetes, cancer and obesity.
A 24-year-old woman undergoing a premarital screening test is found to have elevated levels of AST, ALT, and IgG, but no antibody-specific markers for viral hepatitis. A liver biopsy reveals inflammation and cellular damage. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective for her?
A) Lamivudine
B) Peginterferon and ribavirin
C) Interferon alfa-2b
D) Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs
Answer:
Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs
Explanation:
The Woman is probably down with Autoimmune Hepatitis which may have been induced by genetic, or environmental factors ( possibly viral infection). Autoimmune hepatitis arises when the immune system of a person attack its own cells in this case the liver cell. This can lead to inflammation of the liver, scarring of the liver (cirrhosis) or possibly liver failure. People can be asymptomatic ( showing no symptoms) but in people with symptoms, jaundice (yellowness of the skin and eyes) pruritis (itching skin) and others is often seen.
Treatment will be administration of immunosuppressant drugs such as Azathioprine, in combination with corticosteriods (prednisone) to lower the immune system. Other immunosuppressive drug used in treatment include mycophenoate mofetil and cyclosporine. People may not to respond to treatment or might have complication due to toxicity of the drug in such case Liver transplant may be necessary if the damage is enormous. `
Answer:
Immunosuppressants drugs and Corticosteroids
Explanation:
Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment and have been shown to produce remission.
Which of the following overexpansion injuries can be characterized by chest pain, breathing difficulties, weakness, and cyanosis (blueness) of the lips and nail beds:
A - Rupture of Eardrum
B - Mediastinal Emphysema and Pneumothorax
C - Bends
D - Subcutaneous Emphysema
Answer: B. Mediastinal Emphysema and Pneumothorax
Explanation:
Mediastinal emphysema is a medical condition in which air surrounds the heart and blood vessels in the mediastinum. These air are usually as a result of traumatic lung injuries or other lung pathologies which permits the alveoli which are the air sacs to release their. These air released will definitely seek a place to go and will thereafter find space around mediastinum thereby preventing adequate heart contraction and disruption in blood flow.
Pneumothorax only the other hand is a condition whereby there is air linkage between the lung and chest wall.
This two conditions occurring concurrently can lead to clinical features such as chest pain, shallow breathing, cyanosis, respiratory failure and even unconsciousness.
Final answer:
The injury characterized by chest pain, breathing difficulties, weakness, and cyanosis is Mediastinal Emphysema and Pneumothorax (Option B).
Explanation:
The overexpansion injury that can be characterized by chest pain, breathing difficulties, weakness, and cyanosis of the lips and nail beds is B - Mediastinal Emphysema and Pneumothorax. Mediastinal emphysema, also known as pneumomediastinum, is the presence of air in the mediastinum which can lead to difficulty breathing and chest pain. A pneumothorax is a collapsed lung, which can also result in chest pain and breathing difficulties. The weakness and cyanosis are indicative of a decrease in oxygen delivery to tissues, which can occur with pneumothorax, as the lung's ability to exchange oxygen is compromised.
What term is used to describe the process that moves fluid and small particles out of the blood through the glomerulus and into the nephron tubule
Answer:
Filtration.
Explanation:
Urine formation occurs in three steps: filtration, reabsorption, and secretion. Filtration involves the transfer of water, and waste (soluble components) from the blood into the glomerulus, and glomerular is defined as the small group of intertwined capillaries within nephrons of the kidney which helps to filter the blood to make urine.
During the filtration process, blood enters the arteriole than flow into the glomerulus where water, and nitrogenous waste (filterable blood components), will move inside of the glomerulus, and cells, and serum albumins (non-filterable components) will exit from the arteriole. To form the glomerular filtrate, filterable components accumulated in the glomerulus.
PLEASE HELP ASAP Use the drop-down tool to select the word or phrase that completes each sentence.
1.If you develop a report on a hospital’s total patient count, you are a .
2.If you organize the files in a patient’s chart, you might be working as a .
3.If you are managing other informatics staff, you are probably a .
The blanks can be filled in by
1.Medical Trancriptionist
Health Information Administrator
CIS Specialist
2. Medical Coder
Medical Transcrpitionist
Medical Records Clerk
3.Medical Records Clerk
Cancer Registrar
Health Information Administrator
Final answer:
To complete the sentences, a 'Health Information Administrator' would develop patient count reports and manage informatics staff, while a 'Medical Records Clerk' would organize patient chart files.
Explanation:
To fill in the blanks with the appropriate job titles based on the tasks mentioned, one could determine that:
If you develop a report on a hospital’s total patient count, you are a Health Information Administrator.
If you organize the files in a patient’s chart, you might be working as a Medical Records Clerk.
If you are managing other informatics staff, you are probably a Health Information Administrator.
In the healthcare system, professions like Health Information Administrators and Medical Records Clerks play crucial roles in managing patient information and ensuring that data is accurately recorded and organized.
The majority of cases of vasovagal syncope occur within which of the following time frames following vaccination?
a) 10 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 20 minutes
Answer:
The answer is letter A, 10 minutes.
Explanation:
Vasovagal syncope is also known as "neurocardiogenic syncope." This happens when a person faints due to some triggers following vaccination. The trigger could be the sight of blood or the body's blood pressure suddenly drops. Although this is not a serious condition, it should be monitored or treated.
The majority of cases of vasovagal syncope occur immediately within minutes of receiving the vaccine. It could happen during or after the vaccination. Thus, the answer is letter a, 10 minutes (since this is the shortest time frame).
Vasovagal episodes should be distinguished from anaphylaxis episodes. Anaphylaxis usually occur within 15 minutes to an hour of receiving the vaccine.
Vasovagal syncope causes some of the following symptoms: nausea, vomiting, cool clammy skin, hypotension, bradychardia, loss of consciousness, etc.
Answer:
10 minutes
Explanation:
I don´t really have an explanation but I have vasovagal syncope and have done my research on it, so I hope helped at least a little.
Julio is a researcher and has been assigned to collect statistical data on the Zika virus. What level of research is hr working on if his findings will be used to develop a vaccine or new treatment?
Answer:
Julio could be in 2 levels: 1) a very basic one, in which he is collecting basic data about zika virus to improve his focus on the research next steps or 2) he is a advanced level, which he is collecting data about zika virus already studied in humans.
Explanation:
To develop a vaccine or a new treatment, some steps need to be follow - but a lot of research need to be done and that could take several years.
Basic level - Once a disease-associated pathogen is recognized, it is necessary to identify its specific part that induces the appropriate immune response. It is usually conduct this with academic institutions as they have a deep biological understanding of the disease and its pathology. Since every disease has different characteristics, each vaccine will have a specific developmental process. Depending on the disease, agents may be reduced or inactivated or components of the agents may be purified and combined. The addition of molecules - known as adjuvants - may help to promote the body's immune response. Pre clinical tests - Prior to any testing in humans, a new vaccine will undergo a careful research process in the laboratory and subsequently animal testing. These tests follow strict guidelines established by local and international regulatory authorities, and are only performed when other methods are not sufficient. Clinica tests (advanced level) - Human tests are performed in three phases, all regulated by international entities. After obtaining robust scientific results, the data are sent to the regulatory agencies of the regions and / or countries. This is the formal application seeking approval of the new drug/vaccine. Based on the research, it found that patients may benefit from the vaccine, but it is the regulatory bodies that make the final decision. The application for approval of the vaccine will include information about the disease, restrictions, warnings and how it will act on the body. Only after this approval can we make it available so that trained health professionals can prescribe it. The new vaccine is now manufactured and distributed and doctors receive the information approved by regulatory agencies, helping them decide when to prescribe it.OSHA standards _______ excessive water accumulations or any water accumulation where properly monitored water removal equipment is not in place when workers are in the trench.
Answer:Prohibits
Explanation:
OSHA standards strictly prohibit accumulation of unwanted water in trenches at workplaces where proper water removal systems are not present. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration sets these rules to ensure worker safety.
Explanation:OSHA standards prohibit excessive water accumulations or any water accumulation where properly monitored water removal equipment is not in place when workers are in the trench. OSHA, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, has established guidelines to ensure worker safety on sites such as construction or excavation sites. In trenches where there might be water accumulation, there must be suitable water removal equipment in place, and this needs to be monitored regularly. If such equipment doesn't exist or is not monitored appropriately, these are circumstances under which OSHA can intervene, as it is their responsibility to prevent work environment hazards and protect worker health.
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When Kristi, a vegetarian, combines foods such as beans and rice to consume the right amino acids, she is practicing:
Combining foods like beans and rice, known as complementary protein consumption, ensures Kristi gets all the essential amino acids, crucial for vegetarians because some essential amino acids are more common in animal products.
Explanation:When Kristi, a vegetarian, combines foods such as beans and rice to ensure she gets the right amino acids, she is practicing a concept known as complementary protein consumption. This is a way to get all the essential amino acids – the ones our bodies cannot synthesize – from plant-based diets. Beans and rice, for example, when eaten together, provide all of the essential amino acids that the body needs.
A healthy diet needs to include all of these essential amino acids, particularly for those on a vegetarian or plant-based diet, because certain crucial amino acids are most commonly found in animal products. Fortunately, by intentionally combining certain plant-based foods — like beans and rice — it's possible to get a full spectrum of the essential amino acids. Other food combinations to provide complete proteins are potatoes with beans, and hummus with whole wheat bread.
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The most natural, easiest, safest and least expensive form of aerobic exercise is_____.
A nursing home recently has had a significant number of nosocomial infections. Which measure might be instituted to decrease this trend? a. Mandating antibiotics for all nursing home residents b. Have written, infection-prevention practices for all employees c. Requiring all employees to have monthly screenings for skin flora d. Restricting visitors and community activities for residents
Answer: A
Explanation: Mandating antibiotics for all nursing home residents
This would help reduce the spread of diseases through the nursing home.
Which of the following is mismatched?
a. oncology: diagnosis and treatment of tumors
b. carcinoma: characteristic cell types found in benign tumors
c. mutation: changes in DNA involving substitutions, deletions, insertions, recombinations, and translocations
d. leukemia: cancer of the immune system affecting circulating cells
e. malignant transformation: gain of ability to form a cancer
Answer:
b. carcinoma: characteristic cell types found in benign tumors
Explanation:
A carcinoma is a cancer that occurs in the cells that lines the internal organs and the skin. This carcinoma is like other cancerous cell which can spread to other organs of the body and cause cancer in them which is the characteristic of malignant tumor.
Benign tumors do not have the ability to cause cancer because benign tumor does not spread to other organs. They remain at their position and do not cause more harm to the body like a malignant tumor. Therefore carcinoma is not a characteristic cell types found in benign tumors.
Recent research indicates that the most effective treatment for adolescent girls with anorexia nervosa is___________.
Answer:
Family Therapy
Explanation:
There is a long tradition of association between anorexia nervosa with interactions and family circumstances, especially with problems of separation and individuation in adolescence. Any family therapy technique, both psychodynamic, as structural or systemic, has, in some way, its origin in the conflict to overcome this chronic and, in many cases, deadly pathology, and in the understanding of its mechanisms .
Contemporary family therapy techniques prefer a focus on the repercussions of anorexia nervosa on parents and siblings. In large part, they try to train them on how to deal with eating behavior and patient aspects related to it. They try to avoid exploring the possible participation of family relationships in the origin and maintenance of the pathology, among other causes not to accuse parents of being the cause of it and generate feelings of guilt in them .
There is empirical evidence that speaks of the link between individualization-separation difficulties and eating disorders
In family systems where the basic needs of affectivity, comfort and recognition and emotional support are not covered, these are avoided. They tend to manifest themselves in the form of more dysphoric states, which the individual has difficulty in differentiating and handling in their different forms. The intake or rejection of food can become the main mechanism for the regulation of affections. In families of "classic" anorexics, the expression of affection is usually combined with attempts to control and deny their different needs.
Systems with permeable intrafamilial links and close links between the family and the environment and high interpersonal control seem to tend to promote damage avoidance and a high dependence on reward, as Strober (1991) describes for anorexics. . The protection and control of the links between the individual and others and self-esteem are displaced to food intake and thinness, both visible inside and outside the family environment, and leading to anorexia nervosa.
The physical chemistry that existed when Linh and Bryan met was overwhelming for both of them. They enjoy the sexual energy in their relationship and are becoming more intimate. Neither one is discussing long-term plans or commitments, as they both wish to pursue their education and careers. Sternberg would characterize their love experience as
a. infatuation.
b. fatuous love.
c. empty love.
d. romantic love.
Answer:
its letter c
Explanation:
A client was given 400 mg ibuprofen PO at approximately 000 hours for the treatment of back pain. The client would most likely feel peak effects of the drug at which time?
Answer:
1:30
Explanation:
When it comes to ibuprofen, the first effects from it should be felt around 15-25 minutes later. The peak effect of the drug should be felt around 90 minutes later. On the other hand, the drug is not that strong, so a person would have to take it in the system every 4th or 6th hour. The limit of ibuprofen daily intake would be 6 times a day.
What conditions are salicylates are effective in managing? (Select all that apply.)
A. GI upsetB. InfectionC. InflammationD. FeverE. Pain
Answer: C. Inflammation, D. Fever E. Pain
Explanation:
Salicylates are the drugs which are derivatives of salicylic acids. The group of salicylates includes aspirin. These drugs are available as both prescription and non-prescription drugs or medications. These are used for the purpose of relieving pain, reducing fever and inflammation. These drugs also prevent excess clotting of blood.
Emil mistakenly believed that a single intake interview in which he simply described his numerous symptoms to a therapist was a treatment for his distress. His immediate relief from many of his symptoms following this session best illustrates ____.
Answer:
The correct answer is - the placebo effect.
Explanation:
The placebo effect is a inert treatment or substance that has no effect or might have not affected by it till the time. It has no effect in reality however the patient or client feels like he/she get relief from the symptoms of the problems he/she suffering.
Thus, the correct answer is - the placebo effect.
Answer:
The placebo effect
Explanation:
The placebo effect is defined as a phenomenon in which some people experience a benefit after the administration of an inactive substance or sham treatment.