Answer:
The question is lacking in the options. Below are the options to complete the question
a. 70160, 70370, 71010, 74245
b. 43235, 44363
c.76010
d. 70160, 70370, 71010, 43235, 44363
The RIGHT ANSWER IS C
c.76010
Explanation:
To find a foreign body a radiology exam has to be done. In this senerio the foreign body was not found. In the CPT® Index, look for X-ray/Nose to Rectum/Foreign Body. The correct code is 76010
CPT® code(s) reported for the radiology services is 76010.
76010 is the CPT® code for a radiologic examination, which is used for a radiologic examination from the nose to the rectum for the detection of a foreign body.This code is specifically used for cases where the entire alimentary tract needs to be imaged to locate a potential foreign object.The radiology exam involves multiple images taken along the path from the nose to the rectum to ensure no part is missed.The comprehensive nature of this code accounts for the complete examination, making it the appropriate choice for this scenario.What is the earliest stage of prenatal development at which a rudimentary heart beat can be identified?
Answer:
From the fifth week of pregnancy, its possible to identify the heart beat.
Explanation:
In the third week of pregnancy the heart of the fetus begins to form. For this process, two tubes come together and give rise to five structures: two bulbs, a ventricle, an atrium, and a venous sinus. All this gives rise to the heart tube that, in the fifth week, divides into cavities. This is about the eighth week when the heart is ready.
The heartbeat is noticeable by ultrasound. From the fifth week, on transvaginal ultrasound, depending on the sensitivity of the device, it is possible to hear the heart of the baby. In most such exams you can only hear the baby's heart from 6 and a half weeks.
Answer:
The germinal stage which begins at conception and last for 2 whole weeks. The embryonic is the second stage and lasts for 6 whole weeks. The last stage is the fetal stage and last two months.
Explanation:
Drag each label to the appropriate bin. If an organism is both a secondary consumer and a tertiary consumer, drag it to the "both secondary and tertiary consumer" bin. Bins : -Detritus -primary producer -primary consumer/decomposer -secondary consumer -tertiary consumer -both secondary and tertiary consumer labels (options): -dead animal -living maple leaves -fungus -millipede -earthworm -maggots -rotting log -cricket -robin alligator lizard
Answer: Detritus are the dead animal and the rotting logs.
Producer is the living maple leaf
Primary consumer or decomposers are fungi, cricket maggots
Secondary consumers are earthworm and millipede.
Tertiary consumer aren't available here.
Both secondary and tertiary consumer is Robin Alligator Lizard.
Explanation:A producer is an organism that can produce food from using Inorganic substances like carbon dioxide and water in presence of sunlight. Plants are the producers, so is living maple leaf.
Detritus are the substances that are dead and needs to be decomposed and recycled as new raw products, so is rotting log and dead animal.
Primary consumers and decomposers are the insects and Fungi as well as maggots.
Secondary consumers consume primary consumers as food, so are earthworm and millipede.
Only tertiary consumers are not in list, because alligator lizard can consume both primary and secondary consumers.
The classification of organisms based on their trophic levels involves placing dead animal and rotting log under Detritus; living maple leaves as Primary producer; fungus, earthworm, and maggots as Primary consumer/decomposer; millipede and cricket as Secondary consumer; and robin and alligator lizard as Tertiary consumer. It's essential for understanding energy flow in ecosystems.
To correctly classify the organisms into the appropriate bins based on their trophic levels or roles in the ecosystem, we need to understand their feeding behaviors and interactions within food webs. Here's how each label should be placed:
Detritus: dead animal, rotting log
Primary producer: living maple leaves
Primary consumer/decomposer: fungus, earthworm, maggots
Secondary consumer: millipede, cricket
Tertiary consumer: robin, alligator lizard
Both secondary and tertiary consumer: None mentioned
It's important to understand the flow of energy within an ecosystem. Primary producers make their own food; primary consumers eat those producers; secondary consumers eat the primary consumers; tertiary consumers eat secondary consumers. Decomposers and detritivores break down dead organisms, returning nutrients to the environment.
Suppose that you are a member of a public health agency that will assist in the investigation of a local outbreak of gastroenteritis that officials suspect may be related to egg salad sandwiches served at a school athletic event. The first step in the investigation of the infectious disease outbreak is:
Answer:
The first step of investigation is to verify the existence of the infectious disease outbreak
Explanation:
Answer:
The first step of investigation is to verify the existence of the infectious disease outbreak
Explanation:
Why do so many geneticists focus on studying yeast, fruit flies, nematodes, mice or the small plant Arabidopsis?
Answer: They are all genetically tractable
Explanation:
Yeast, fruit flies, nematodes, mice or the small plant Arabidopsis have known genome i.e their entire genetic information is known to the scientific community, thus they are EASILY MODIFIED in genetic research.
Also, they are simple eukaryotes (having cells with defined nucleus) so they can explain the processes in the human eukaryotic cell during genetic research
Both reasons make them genetically tractable
Answer:
They have multiple features that allow for cheap, fast and efficient manipulation of genes and chromosomes.
Explanation:
The abiotic synthesis of ____________________, such as amino acids and nitrogenous bases, may have occurred near volcanoes or around deep-sea vents.
Answer:
Polypeptides
Explanation:
Final answer:
The abiotic synthesis of organic compounds, such as amino acids and nitrogenous bases, has been demonstrated in lab conditions resembling early Earth and may have occurred naturally near volcanoes or deep-sea vents. This process was facilitated by an oxygen-poor atmosphere and catalytic surfaces provided by mineral-rich hydrothermal vents.
Explanation:
The abiotic synthesis of organic compounds, such as amino acids and nitrogenous bases, may have occurred near volcanoes or around deep-sea vents. Laboratory experiments have shown that this process is possible under conditions similar to those of early Earth. For instance, cyanoacetylene can react with water to form cyanoacetaldehyde, which can then condense to form cytosine, demonstrating the synthesis of nitrogenous bases. Similarly, hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor provide conditions conducive to the synthesis of amino acids and peptides, with their reducing molecules and metallic catalytic surfaces supporting the formation of these prebiotic molecules.
A key factor in the abiotic synthesis of these compounds is the absence of oxygen in Earth's early atmosphere, which consisted mostly of methane, ammonia, hydrogen, and water. The successful synthesis of pyrimidine ribonucleotides, as reported in Nature, indicates that even the components necessary for the formation of nucleic acids could have been created abiogenetically under early Earth conditions.
The plasma membrane prevents all potassium ions from leaking out but allows all sodium ions to cross into the cell from the extracellular fluid.True / False.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation:
The plasma membrane has both Na –K channels across it walls. They are membrane transport proteins which hydrolyse ATP s for the active transport mechanisms for transport of sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membranes .
Naturally,there are more potassium ion channels than sodium channels in plasma membrane; potassium is also extracellular while sodium is extracellular
Therefore ,when some potassium ions diffused into the Axoplasm, from the extracellular medium;;some potassium ions still move out BACK into the extracellular environments. Not all potassium are restricted from leaving .
This leakage occurs because of more available potassium ions channels than sodium ions, and higher number of available potassium ions
Thus the answer is FALSE
the ratio of diffusion is 3 sodium out to 2 potassium in
Final answer:
The claim in the question is false; the plasma membrane lets potassium ions leak out due to its high permeability to K⁺, while it is normally impermeable to sodium ions.
Explanation:
The statement given is false. The plasma membrane does not prevent all potassium ions (K⁺) from leaking out; in fact, it is very permeable to potassium ions, especially at rest. Potassium ions can diffuse out of the cell at a faster rate than sodium ions (Na⁺) can enter because there are more potassium leakage channels. It is also important to note the role of the sodium-potassium pump in maintaining the resting potential of the cell membrane. This pump actively transports three sodium ions out of the cell and brings two potassium ions into the cell, which contributes to the negative charge inside the cell relative to the extracellular fluid. While potassium has high permeability at rest, the membrane is normally impermeable to sodium ions.
Which of the following distinguishes prophase 1 of meiosis from prophase of mitosis?
A. homologous chromosomes pair up
B. spindle forms
C. nuclear membrane breaks down
D. chromosomes become visible
Answer:
The correct answer is A). Homologous chromosomes pair up.
Explanation:
During prophase 1, it occurs chromosomes condensation. The principal difference with the mitosis prophase is that during meiosis prophase 1, each chromosome gets carefully in pair with its homologous chromosome. They do so to make the crossing-over possible, stage where they interchange their parts.
The distinguishing feature of prophase I of meiosis is the [ option a ] pairing of homologous chromosomes (synapsis), which does not occur in prophase of mitosis.
To distinguish prophase I of meiosis from prophase of mitosis, you need to identify what is unique to each process. This pairing, known as synapsis, is specific to prophase I of meiosis and does not occur during prophase of mitosis.
Here is a step-by-step comparison:
Prophase I of Meiosis: Homologous chromosomes pair up (synapsis). This is followed by crossing-over, where genetic material is exchanged between chromatids, contributing to genetic diversity.Prophase of Mitosis: Homologous chromosomes do not pair up. Instead, individual chromosomes condense and become visible, the nuclear membrane breaks down, and the spindle forms, but without the specific pairing of homologs.Bowhunters should avoid _______ shots, because the vital areas are protected by bone from this angle.
A. quartering-away
B. quartering-toward
C. broadside
D. rear-end
Answer:
The correct answer is B. quartering-toward
Explanation:
Shot angle is important to do a successful hunt. It is the angle that denotes the position of animals concerning to he hunter. The best shot angle is the broad shot angle for big game animals.
Quartering towards is the marginal shot angle which can result in the ruining of edible meat in large amounts. The risk of failing in making a clean and quick kill is also low in this angle because bones can protect the vital organs of the animal at this angle and the animal can change its position quickly as it can see the action of hunter.
All variations within organisms can be explained by the known principles of genetics. True or False
Answer:
The statement is true.
Explanation:
Genetics is responsible for studying the way in which the characteristics of living organisms, whether morphological, physiological, biochemical or behavioral, are transmitted, generated and expressed, from one generation to another, under different environmental conditions, that is, try to explain how the characteristics of living beings are inherited and modified, which can be in shape (the height of a plant, the color of its seeds, the shape of the flower...), physiological (for example, the constitution of certain protein that performs a specific function within the body of an animal), and even behavior (in the form of courtship before mating in certain groups of birds, or the way of mating of mammals, among others). In this way, the principles of genetics tries to study how these characteristics pass to generation after generation, and why, in turn, they vary generation after other.
What is the name of the part of the temporal bone that houses the organs of hearing and equilibrium?
Answer:
The petrous part.
Explanation:
The petrous part of the temporal bone has the shape of a quadrangular pyramind whose axis, from base to vertex, is oriented obliquely forward and inward. This triangular portion is located between the occipital bone and the sphenoid. It houses the organs involved in hearing and balance/equilibrium (This part of the bone contains the inner ear ). It has three surfaces, three angles, a base and a vertex, formed by the inner part of the petrosal portion and the fetal tympanic portion. This portion contains numerous cavities and multiple ducts that cross it. The base of the petrosal portion is intended to form the mastoid portion, serves as the medial wall of the middle ear cavity and provides an outlet for the Eustachian duct.
In an ideal intercuspal position, the mesiofacial groove of a mandibular first molar opposes which part of the maxillary first molar?
a. Tip of the distofacial cusp
b. Tip of the mesiofacial cusp
c. A triangular ridge of the distofacial cusp
d. A triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp
Answer:
In an ideal intercuspal position, the mesiofacial groove of a mandibular first molar opposes "A triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp" of the maxillary first molar
Explanation:
Triangular ridges are those which arises from the cusp guidelines of premolar and molars near the central groove. Transverse ridges are designed by the grouping of two triangular ridges on the posterior teeth. The connection of the buccal and lingual triangular ridges is frequently termed as an example. Being a non-functional cusp it is a mandibular tooth. The crown touches into lingually. The cusp has four cusp edges they are mesiobuccal, distobuccal, mesiolingual and distolingual. The buccal and lingual triangular edges will lead to the establishment of the transverse edge in the central groove part.
The mesiofacial groove of a mandibular first molar opposes the triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp option (d) of the maxillary first molar in an ideal intercuspal position.
Explanation:In an ideal intercuspal position, which refers to the way the teeth of both jaws fit together in maximum contact or occlusion, the mesiofacial groove of a mandibular first molar opposes the triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp of the maxillary first molar. The correct answer to the question is option d: A triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp.
The intercuspal position is significant for proper mastication and occlusion harmonics. The teeth within the oral cavity exhibit particular conduct so that the grooves, cusps, and ridges of opposing teeth match in a manner that allows effective chewing function without causing trauma to the dentition or the temporomandibular joint.
A nurse is reviewing discharge plans with a client who is hospitalized with hepatitis A. The nurse concludes that the client understands preventive measures to reduce the risk of spreading the disease when the client makes what statement?
Answer:
Maintaining good hand hygiene
Explanation:
Hepatitis A is also known as infectious hepatitis. It is caused by a non-enveloped RNA virus, Hepatitis A virus (HAV). This virus is shed in the stool of the infected individual and is transmitted by fecal-oral route.
PREVENTIVE MEASURES TO REDUCE THE RISK OF DISEASE TRANSMISSION:
Maintaining good hygiene i.e. washing hands with water after toileting is of paramount importance in preventing HAV transmission as this virus is shed in the stool and is transmitted via fecal-oral route. Washing hands after toileting removes the virus from the hands and prevents its transmission to other individuals in contact with the patient.Placing the tissues used during defecating in trash bin is also important.In intestinal epithelial cells, a transport protein moves the bulky, polar glucose molecules through the membrane into the cytoplasm, while simultaneously transporting Na through the membrane into the cell down its electrochemical gradient. Which example correctly describes this cotransport of glucose and sodium
Answer:
Secondary active transport by symporter.
Explanation:
Secondary active transport is known as an active transport which moves two different types of molecules or ions across a transport membrane. In this transport one of the molecules moves down its electrochemical gradient across the biological membrane, and this helps another molecule to move in the uphill direction against the concentration gradient.
In symport transport the molecules moves in similar direction across the membrane. So, this is the example of Secondary active transport by symporter.
The random alignment of the tetrads along the equatorial plate; occurs during metaphase I?
Answer:
Yes, the random alignment of the tetrads along with the equatorial plate occurs during metaphase I.
Explanation:
After the crossing-over in prophase I, and during metaphase I, fibers of the spindle apparatus capture chromosomes and take them toward the center of the cell, to the metaphase plate. The homologous pairs of chromosomes get aligned in the metaphase plate for their posterior separation in anaphase I.
Each chromosome of the pair joins with a microtubule of only one of the spindle poles, so the two equivalent chromosomes join the fibers of opposites poles.
When they align in the center of the cell, their orientation is random.
During metaphase I of meiosis, tetrads align randomly at the metaphase plate, which ensures genetic variation in the resulting gametes due to independent assortment.
Explanation:The student's question relates to metaphase I of meiosis, a critical phase in cell division where genetic diversity is introduced into the resulting gametes. During this phase, tetrads, which have formed during earlier prophase I, align at the equator of the cell to form what is known as the metaphase plate. This alignment is random with respect to the maternal and paternal origin of each chromosome that makes up the tetrad.
Owing to this, there is an equal chance of microtubule fibers connecting to either the maternal or paternal chromosome, leading to independent assortment. This leads to numerous possible combinations when these pairs are eventually separated, contributing to genetic variation in the offspring.
In Africa, AIDS takes its toll on the population, but deaths occur most frequently in the 20-40 age group. Show a survivorship curve that would illustrate this pattern.
Answer:
Late diagnosis and poor treatment is the major cause of death in the 20-40 age group in the Africa.
Explanation:
The people get AIDS from to main sources
1. Use of infected syringe
2. Unprotected sex with infected person
The teen age group is mainly infected from sources mentioned above.
In the Africa people are poor. They got infected but not early diagnosed. The disease become so severe when diagnosed. In the Africa population is poor. so they cannot afford the expensive the antiretroviral treatment.
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A few years ago Robert noticed a few gray hairs. A little frustrated, he was able to isolate and pluck them out one by one; however, recently his gray hairs have become overwhelming in number and he has more gray hairs than brunette. Which of the following best describes the development of time period Robert is in?
a. early adulthood
b. young adulthood
c. mid-adulthood
d. late adulthood
Answer:
c. mid-adulthood
Explanation:
This stage of life when gray hairs become overwhelming in number and he has more gray hairs than brunette( brown hair) is called middle adulthood. Middle adulthood spans from 20 to 40 years of life which may be defined differently for different culture and country.
Robert is in his late mid adulthood somewhere near 40 at this age hair generally grow grey.
The guidelines for trauma triage and transport, as released by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, take into consideration each of the following factors except:
a. Physiological determination
b. Patient's sex
c. MOI
d. Anatomic criteria
Answer:
Patient's sex.
Explanation:
Trauma triage and transport process main aim is to provide the proper facility to the injured patient so they can easily reach at the trauma center. Emergency medical services also plays an important role.
Different rules and guidelines have been implemented in the trauma triage and transport. The physiology of the patient is determined and proper medical facility is provided to the patient. The patient sex is not determined and keep not in consideration in the guidelines.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
An individual eats a hamburger. Which two systems must interact to transfer the nutrients in the hamburger to human muscle tissue?
Answer:
Digestive and circulatory
Explanation:
The digestive system includes a set of organs that together breakdown the complex nutrients present in the food we eat into simpler substances. The proteins, carbohydrates and other nutrients present in a hamburger are digested by the digestive enzymes secreted by various organs of the digestive system.
Digestion of nutrients completes in the small intestine of the digestive system. The digestion products of the hamburger are then absorbed through the cells of the wall of the small intestine. The absorbed nutrients enter the circulatory system and are carried to various body cells such as muscle cells via the blood.
Amnesia is characterized by extreme memory loss that stems from extensive psychological stress.
True / False.
Answer:
Answer is true.
Explanation:
Amnesia or dissociative amnesia occurs when the memory is functioning abnormally due to the effects of psychological trauma on the brain. This means that the resulting abnormal brain functioning is solely due to the psychological stress and not physiological effect.
A 4-year-old girl ingested a bottle of aspirin approximately 30 minutes ago. She is conscious and alert but complains that her stomach hurts. The child's mother tells you that she does not think her daughter ingested anything else. The poison control center will MOST likely request that you ______
Answer:
Answer is the administration of about 12.5 grams of activated charcoal.
Explanation:
The activated charcoal is administered during emergency treatment of some kinds of poisoning. This will prevent the poisonings from being absorbed from the stomach into the body.
In some cases, a large amount of dose of activated charcoal may be required to treat poisoning that is severe.
It is administered after the powdery form of the activated charcoal is mixed with liquid.
When explaining the probability of assignment to trial arms in consent forms, which is true?A. FDA requires the probability to be expressed as a percentage chance.B. The use of a placebo arm does have to be specifically stated, but not the chance of assignment.C. ICH notes that it should be included, but does not specify how the information should be presented.D. The probability of assignment should always be stated as being "like the flip of a coin" because subjects can understand that example
Answer:
C. ICH notes that it should be included, but does not specify how the information should be presented
Explanation:
The International Council for Harmonisation of Technical Requirements for Pharmaceuticals for Human Use (ICH) is a unique institution that has as an objective the fact to bring regulatory and pharmaceutical authorities together in order to discuss scientific and technical aspects of drug registration. It started in the year 1990 and currently it counts on 16 members and 32 observers.
The probability of assignment to trial arms in consent forms only requires stating the use of a placebo arm, not the chance of assignment.
Explanation:The correct statement when explaining the probability of assignment to trial arms in consent forms is B. The use of a placebo arm does have to be specifically stated, but not the chance of assignment.
This means that when describing the trial arms in the consent form, it is important to mention whether a placebo arm is being used or not. However, the exact probability of assignment does not need to be specified.
For example, the consent form can state that some participants will receive the experimental treatment, while others will receive a placebo or standard treatment, without providing the exact percentage chance of assignment.
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Damage to which part of the brain would have the LEAST effect on a person's ability to juggle?
Answer:
Reticular Formation:"A part of the brain which deals with regulation of blood movement inside the human body and responds to detection of blockage in the blood vessels."Explanation:
Lets, suppose there has a block age occurred in any of the blood vessel inside the human body, which is detected by neurons and the message is sent with the help of nervous system the brain analyzes the data and the responses are given in the next few steps. As, the reticular formation will have the least effect on a persons ability to juggle. As it has no relation whats so ever with the ability of the brain to juggle abilities of humans.A 9-month old baby with a macular rash is brought to the hospital. Parents report that the rash started on the face, spread to the rest of the body, and was preceded with coldlike symptoms. There are small reddish spots in the baby's mouth. What is the diagnosis?
a) shingles
b) smallpox
c) chickenpox
d) rubeola
Answer: d) rubeola
Explanation:
Rubeola is a virus which causes measles. The virus lives inside the nose and throat mucus of the infected adult or child. The infection of the virus remains for 4 days. The infection spread through the infected droplets from an infected person. The symptoms include fever, cough and red rashes which firstly appear on face and then to entire body.
Reynaldo is usually good-natured and fun-loving. Women enjoy his warmth and sense of humor. After a number of drinks, he becomes verbally abusive, shows poor interpersonal judgment, and becomes very aggressive. This change in behavior is an example of___________.
Answer:
The effect that alcohol has on the brain.
Explanation:
Alcohol is one of the few substances that can get into contact with brain cells and affect them directly which results in behavioral change when exposed to too much alcohol.
The example given in the question is a result of that. Reynaldo acting very different than his normal self and becoming verbally abusive and showing agressive behavior is a sign that the alcohol is affecting his Frontal Lobe.
This is the part of the brain that is assigned with the control of very important functions such as emotional behavior, making decisions, language abilities etc. and when it is affected by alcohol, it can lead to unexpected emotional expressions such as fighting, crying etc.
I hope this answer helps.
One of the keys to success for Mendel was his selection of pea plants. Explain how using pea plantsallowed Mendel to control mating; that is, how did this approach let Mendel be positive about theexact characteristics of each parent?
Answer:
Because of the polination characteristics of the pea plant.
Explanation:
Mendel had various reasons to use pea plants for his genetic experiments such as the observability of the pea's traits, ease of reproduction etc. but the main reason he used them is because they allowed him to have controlled mating which made the traits more controllable and therefore Mendel was sure of his observations and results. This was possible because the pea plants, during their flowering periods, are protected from alien pollinating, therefore he could control the polination process of the experiment, which was crucial in terms of accuracy and reliability of the results.
I hope this answer helps.
Briefly explain what clues to look for to tell if a cell is in each of the following phases of mitosis:
Answer:prophase----the chromosomes shorten and thicken.the nuclear membrane has open up and the nucleolus has disappeared
Metaphase----the chromosomes migrate to the central plane of the cell and attach to the spindle fibres microtubules
Anaphase---the chromatids of each chromosomes part and move towards opposite poles of the spindle as the spindle fibres shorten
Telophase----the chromatids are in the polar end of the spindle .the spindle breaks down,the centrioles replicate,the nuclear membrane is reformed,the chromosomes gradually uncoil.
Explanation:
Final answer:
Mitosis includes several stages where specific events occur: chromosomes condense in prophase, align in metaphase, sister chromatids separate during anaphase, and two new nuclei form in telophase, followed by the cytoplasm splitting in cytokinesis.
Explanation:
Clues for Identifying Phases of Mitosis
Mitosis is the process by which a cell divides its nucleus and distributes its chromosomes equally to two offspring nuclei. It is part of the larger cell cycle and is preceded by a period of cell growth called interphase. Mitosis consists of several distinct stages: prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase and cytokinesis.
Prophase
During prophase, chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes, the nucleolus becomes less distinct, and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Microtubules begin to form the spindle fibers.
Metaphase
In metaphase, the chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate, equidistant from the two spindle fiber poles.
Anaphase
Distinguishing anaphase can be done by observing the sister chromatids separating and moving to opposite poles of the cell.
Telophase and Cytokinesis
Telophase is marked by the decondensation of chromosomes and the formation of two new nuclear membranes. Cytokinesis follows, where the cytoplasm divides, resulting in two daughter cells.
A bacterium that is transformed: Select one:
a. will probably die within 48 hours
b. cannot form a conjugation pilus
c. if injected, it always will result in the death of a mouse
d. has acquired naked DNA from the environment
Answer:
d. has acquired naked DNA from the environment
Explanation:
Bacterial transformation is a process whereby a living bacterium takes up pieces of DNA from the environment and the foreign DNA becomes incorporated into the genome of the bacterium thereby 'transforming' it genetically.
A transformed bacterium does not necessarily die within 48 hours, all other factors being considered.
Transformation does not hinder a bacterium from forming conjugation pilus.
Transformation does not always make a bacterium to be lethal to mouse. It depends on the gene present in the foreign DNA.
The correct option is d.
The flow of electrons down the respiratory chain allows the active transport of _________ to the outside of the cytoplasmic membrane.
Answer:hydrogen ions
Explanation:in the mitochondria,electrons pass down a chain of carrier molecules from a higher energy level to a lower energy level.energy is released from this process and this energy is used to pump hydrogen ions into the inter membrane space of the mitochondria.this causes a gradient which is harnessed for the formation of ATP from ADP and an inorganic phosphate.
If 2n = 48 for a particular cell, then the chromosome number in each cell after meiosis would be
Answer:
The number of chromosome in each cell after meiosis would be 24
Explanation:
2n = 48
n = 48/2 = 24
After meiosis, each cell would have haploid number of chromosome (24)
if a cell contains 48 chromosome, then the chromosome number in each cell after meiosis will be n= 24.
Meiosis:
It is a type division in which cell divide to form 4 haploid daughter cells.
The produced daughter cells are haploid. Haploid means half of number the chromosome in produced daughter cells. It is found in the germ cells that give rice to the sperm and ovum.Therefore, if a cell contains 48 chromosome, then the chromosome number in each cell after meiosis will be n= 24.
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The region of a Drosophila embryo with a low concentration of bicoid protein will develop into the _____. a) abdomenb) male flowersc) thoraxd) heade) female flowers
Answer:
The correct option is d) head.
Explanation:
Bicoid protein works as a transcription factor. It enters the nuclei of the embryos in early segmentation, where it activates the hunchback gene. In Drosophila, embryonic development begins at the time of fertilization. The sperm enters the mature oocyte through the micropile, a structure located in what will be the anterior region of the egg. Bicoid and hunchback mRNAs, protein products are critical for the formation of the head and thorax. Already in the early stages of oocyte development, certain mRNAs are located in specific regions of the oocyte: mRNA molecules encoding the Bicoid protein are preferentially located in the anterior region of the oocyte. Moderate levels of the bicoid protein are necessary to activate the formation of the thorax (i.e., the expression of the hunchback gene) but the formation of the head requires high concentrations of Bicoid, the promoters of a specific gap gene of the head must have sites of low affinity binding for Bicoid, so that this gene can be activated only in extremely high concentrations of Bicoid.
The lack of Bicoid protein affects the formation of the head and other structures in the anterior region of the oocyte.