Answer:
The correct answer is option 4. Gene that codes for enzyme X
Explanation:
Hello!
Let's solve this!
Mutations are a change in the DNA sequence.
We will analyze each of the options:
1. Ribosome on which enzyme X is made: the ribosome cannot suffer mutations.
2. Ability of the DNA to replicate: DNA can suffer mutations, but will not affect the production of substances.
3. Amino acid sequence of RNA: RNA does not suffer mutations
4. Gene that codes for enzyme X: This option is correct because when the gene undergoes a mutation, the enzyme that is encoded by that gene will be affected.
After the analysis we conclude that the correct answer is option 4. Gene that codes for enzyme X
What additional protective layer of protein surrounds some viruses?
Answer:
This layer is called a capsid. The viruses without one are called naked viruses. The naked virus is can be damaged more readily by things in the environment.
Explanation:
The additional protective layer of protein surrounds some viruses is capsid.
What is virus?A virus is a very small size and with simple composition life form that replicates itself only inside the living cells of an organism. Viruses affects almost each life forms like animals, birds or human beings.
The protective layer is called a capsid. The viruses without this layer are the harmful viruses. They damage the cells more readily.
Thus, the additional protective layer of protein surrounds some viruses is capsid.
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True or false? Regulatory and basal transcription factors regulate transcription by binding to the promoter.
True. Both regulatory and basal transcription factors bind to the promoter to regulate transcription.
Explanation:True. Both regulatory and basal transcription factors bind to the promoter to regulate transcription. Basal transcription factors are general transcription factors that form a preinitiation complex and recruit RNA polymerase II for transcription initiation. Regulatory transcription factors, on the other hand, are specific transcription factors that bind to a specific sequence on the promoter of a specific gene.
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True. Regulatory and basal transcription factors regulate transcription by binding to the promoter.Transcription is the process by which the information in a gene is transcribed into a complementary RNA molecule. Regulatory and basal transcription factors play essential roles in controlling this process.
Regulatory transcription factors, also known as enhancers or repressors, bind to specific DNA sequences within the promoter or enhancer regions of a gene. These factors can either enhance or inhibit transcription by facilitating or impeding the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
Basal transcription factors, on the other hand, are a set of proteins that are involved in the formation of the transcription initiation complex. They bind to the promoter region and are necessary for the recruitment and binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA template. This binding of regulatory and basal transcription factors to the promoter region is a crucial step in the regulation of gene expression. It determines whether a gene will be transcribed or not and at what rate, ultimately controlling the production of specific RNA molecules from the corresponding genes.
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The _____________ delivers bile from the liver to the duodenum where digestion is completed.
Answer:
Bile duct
Explanation:
Bile is required in the digestion of fats and oils through emulsification. The bile duct delivers this bile from the hepatic ducts of the gallbladder from where bile is temporarily stored. Bile is green in color. Blockage of the duct results to a condition called jaundice where the bilirubin (the main component of bile) accumulates in the blood causing yellowing of eyes and skin.
Different species of fruit flies occupy each of the islands in the Hawaiian island chain, a group of volcanic islands that formed one after the other. One hypothesis for how the different fruit fly species formed is that, after each new island was formed, fruit flies from existing islands colonized it and subsequently diverged. If this hypothesis is correct, it would be an example of:allopatric speciation by dispersal.sympatric speciation by dispersal.sympatric speciation by vicariance.peripatric speciation by vicariance.allopatric speciation by vicariance.
Answer:
allopatric speciation by dispersal
Explanation:
Allopatric speciation is a form of speciation (creation of new species) that occurs as a result of geographic isolation. This means that a part of population becomes physically separated from the initial main population. There is no gene flow between these two populations and as a result the two populations reach a high level of genetic divergence. They can no longer interbreed which means they become two different species (speciation).
One of the factors that contribute to the allopatric speciation is dispersal.
New populations evolve as result of mutation, genetic drift and natural selection.
Final answer:
The formation of different fruit fly species on the Hawaiian islands, if occurring as fruit flies from one island colonize another and subsequently diverge, is an example of allopatric speciation by dispersal.
Explanation:
If the hypothesis regarding the formation of different species of fruit flies on each of the Hawaiian islands is correct, the process is an example of allopatric speciation by dispersal. Allopatric speciation occurs when populations are geographically isolated, leading to the divergence of species due to reproductive isolation and subsequent evolution. Dispersal refers to the movement of a species from one location to another. In the scenario given, after each new island was formed, fruit flies from existing islands colonized it. Over time, due to isolation from their source populations and unique environmental pressures, they diverged into new species.
This is in contrast to sympatric speciation, which occurs when a new species arises within the range of the parent species without geographic isolation, like in the case of the apple maggot fly (Rhagoletis pomonella). In sympatric speciation, despite living in the same physical location, a species diverges into two or more species due to factors like changing host preferences or behavioral changes leading to reproductive isolation.
The reason that the steroid hormone aldosterone affects only a small number of cells in the body is that _____.
Answer:
Only small number of the cells in the body are the target cell for the aldosteron
Explanation:
Target cell for a certain hormone is a cell that have hormone receptor specific for that hormone. There are two main types of receptors on target cell:
cell membrane receptors (also called trans membrane receptors)-usually for peptide hormones, such as insulinintracellular receptors (also called nuclear receptors)-usually for steroid hormones, such as testosterone.Hormone binding to the receptor leads to the signal cascade within the cell, which results in cell response.
The aldosterone mineralocorticoid receptors are nuclear receptors mostly located in the kidneys.
Which of the following statements best defines the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?a) a graphical representation of the amount of oxygen found in the atmosphereb) a graphical representation of the relationship between hemoglobin's percent saturation and the partial pressure of oxygenc) a graphical representation of the amount of hemoglobin found in the bloodd) a graphical representation of the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin and how that affects the partial pressure of O2 in the blood
Answer:
b) a graphical representation of the relationship between hemoglobin's percent saturation and the partial pressure of oxygen
Explanation:
On vertical axis-hemoglobin's oxygen saturation
On horizontal axis-oxygen partial pressure
This curve determines hemoglobin affinity for oxygen. If hemoglobin has high oxygen saturation, hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen is high.
As the blood moves through the systemic capillary, hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen decreases, so that oxygen can be released into the cells.
Which of the following statements BEST
describes a function of an enzyme?
A.)Enzymes are specialized proteins that
serve as catalysts.
B.)Enzymes are carbohydrate-based
molecules found in all cells.
C.)The structure of enzymes is changed
during a chemical reaction.
D.)All enzymes work on all substrates.
The statements BEST describes a function of an enzyme -
A.) Enzymes are specialized proteins that serve as catalysts.
Enzymes are macromolecular biological catalysts that accelerate chemical reactions. These are substrate-specific molecules.
acts as a catalyst to bring about a specific biochemical reaction.Enzymes are proteins that help speed up metabolism, or the chemical reactions in our bodies.They build some substances and break others down.Thus, the statements BEST describes a function of an enzyme -
A.) Enzymes are specialized proteins that serve as catalysts.
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Copper is a metal that is used for many purposes. It is mined from the earth using various methods. Though the amount of copper in the Earth's crust is very large, if the mining of copper continues, it will eventually run out.
What action could be taken to help conserve the world's supply of copper?
A) find cheaper, easier methods to mine copper
B) use another metal as a substitute for copper wiring
C) a plan to collect copper that is sent to landfills and recycle it instead
D) a way to reduce the pollution connected with the processes of mining copper
Answer: B ) Yes, the need to conserve copper must be balanced with use.
Explanation:
Genetic information is encoded in the A) quaternary structure of a protein. B) sequence of nucleotides in DNA. C) degree of saturation of fatty acids. D) length of glycogen. E) linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide
Sequence of nucleotides in DNA
Genetic information is encoded in the sequence of nucleotides in DNA, with each nucleotide contributing to the genetic code that determines the amino acid sequence of proteins. This sequence is conveyed from DNA to RNA and finally expressed in the polypeptide chains that fold into a protein's unique three-dimensional structure. Hence the correct option is B.
Each nucleotide consists of a pentose sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group. In DNA, these nucleotides represent the letters A (adenine), C (cytosine), G (guanine), and T (thymine), forming a genetic alphabet used to create the polymers that carry genetic information. In RNA, thymine is replaced by U (uracil). The order of these nucleotides in the DNA molecule determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein, through the intermediary messenger molecule mRNA. During protein synthesis, the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA is divided into sets of three called codons, with each codon encoding for a specific amino acid. This process of translating genetic information from DNA to RNA, and ultimately to the amino acid sequence of a protein, underlies the building of a cell's proteins and enacts the genetic instructions carried by an organism. The primary structure of a protein is the linear sequence of amino acids, which determines the protein's final three-dimensional shape through a series of folding and bonding patterns known as the secondary and tertiary structures. If multiple polypeptide chains are involved, the resulting quaternary structure forms the functional protein.
What is the importance of dna extraction?
The ability to extract DNA is of primary importance to studying the genetic causes of disease and for the development of diagnostics and drugs. It is also essential for carrying out forensic science, sequencing genomes, detecting bacteria and viruses in the environment and for determining paternity.
Final answer:
DNA extraction is crucial for accurately studying and manipulating genetic material, impacting research, medical diagnostics, and forensics. The process ensures the isolation of high-quality DNA and involves specific steps such as cell lysis, removal of contaminants, and DNA precipitation. The choice of DNA extraction kits can affect both quality and cost, while proper storage is key for sample integrity.
Explanation:
The importance of DNA extraction is paramount in biological sciences. It constitutes the first step in many biochemical analyses, allowing scientists to isolate genetic material from cell cultures or tissues. High-quality DNA extraction is essential for accurate quantification and can influence the outcome of research, medical diagnostics, and forensics. During DNA extraction, cells undergo lysis using detergents like sodium dodecyl sulfate, which is followed by the removal of unwanted macromolecules using proteases and DNAase-free RNAase. The DNA is then precipitated using alcohol due to its physical and chemical properties, uniquely separating it from other cellular components.
Researchers rely on various DNA extraction kits, which may affect sample quality and cost. The choice of the appropriate kit can significantly determine the integrity and utility of extracted DNA. Moreover, post-extraction, the DNA must be carefully stored at low temperatures for long-term preservation and future usage.
In summary, DNA extraction is a critical procedure that lays the foundation for many sophisticated scientific endeavors, ranging from gene expression studies and RNA analysis to the advancement of recombinant DNA technology and beyond.
What is a difference between starch and glycogen?
A: Starch stores energy, and glycogen provides structural support.
B: Starch is found in plants, and glycogen is found in animals.
C: Starch is composed of fructose, and glycogen is composed of glucose.
D: Starch is a monomer, and glycogen is a polymer.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Glycogen is produced by animals and is known as animal starch while starch is produced by plants. Glycogen has a branched structure while starch has both chain and branched components.
What are the reactants and products of photosynthesis?
Reactants are carbon dioxide water. Products are glucose, oxygen, and energy
Calvin ate a candy bar, which caused his body’s blood glucose levels to become unbalanced. His body responded by initiating a feedback mechanism to return his body to homeostasis. Place the steps of this feedback mechanism in order, starting with the blood glucose imbalance that occurred after Calvin consumed the candy bar
I need help plz awnser my question!
Answer:
The first part here is to understand what homeostasis means. Homeostasis is defined as the natural balance that the human body keeps by controlling the different factors that make a part of it. This homeostasis is internal and it totally depends on the body´s different mechanisms to maintain a controlled internal system. Homeostatic imbalance appears when at least one of the factors falls out of synchronization, affecting one or more of the systems in the body.
Glucose is an absolutely essential molecule for the body and without it there would simply be no energy; thus without glucose there would be no homeostasis either. The body has two means of acquiring glucose for cellular activities: diet and breaking of stored glucose components in the muscles and the liver. When the body has a low level of blood glucose, the body´s mechanisms will turn on in order to restore the balance, as there must always be a minimum, and maximum, amount of free glucose in the bloodstream. When these mechanisms cannot meet the needs, or when forces out of the body´s control come into play, then we speak of an imbalance, or homeostatic disbalance.
Calvin are a candy bar, which is not just packed with glucose, but also with much more complex sugars that will yield an enormous amount of glucose and fructose to the bloodstream. As such, the peaks of glucose free in the bloodstream will be abnormally high and homeostasis becomes unbalanced. In response to the glucose in the blood, the pancreas begins secreting insulin, the molecule responsible for ensuring that cells are able to capture glucose and fructose, and use them for energy production. Insulin does this by binding to receptors on the cells´ surface to encourage glucose uptake. If the amount of molecules of glucose and fructose are too high, then the body will start to cluster these into glycogen molecules which will then be taken by muscle and the liver to store for when Calvin´s bloodstream glucose levels drop below normal. Like this, Calvin has regained his homeostatic balance after eating the candy bar.
Blank occur when the partially positive blank attract partially negative atoms nearby examples include the blank
Answer:
ionic bonds,
NaCl and MgCl₂
How do organisms grow? A. Through anaerobic respiration B. Through growth of existing cells C. Through creation of new organ systems D. Through cell division and production
Answer:
(D). Through cell division and production.
Explanation:
Growth can be defined as increase in size, which is done by increasing the numbers of cells by multicellular organisms. It depends on division and differentiation of cells.
Cell division involves formation of two daughter cells from a single parent cell. So, by cell divisions, number of cells are increased that leads to growth of the organism.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Final answer:
Organisms grow through cell division and production, with multicellular organisms increasing in size by continuously dividing cells. The process of aerobic cellular respiration, which breaks down glucose and oxygen to release energy, has been key to the growth and development of multicellular life on Earth. Decomposers also contribute to the recycling of nutrients, supporting the growth of other organisms.
Explanation:
Organisms grow through cell division and production. The twin characteristics of growth in living organisms are an increase in mass and an increase in the number of individuals (reproduction). In multicellular organisms, such as animals and plants, growth occurs through the process of cell division, which can take place continually or up to a certain age, depending on the organism. This is different from anaerobic respiration, which is a process of producing energy without oxygen that some microorganisms utilize. Aerobic cellular respiration involves breaking down glucose and oxygen to produce energy, water, and carbon dioxide.
The energy produced by aerobic respiration is significant as it has allowed organisms to become multicellular and increase in size. Plants contribute to this process through photosynthesis, which produces the oxygen and glucose necessary for cellular respiration in other organisms. Decomposers like bacteria and fungi also play a role in recycling organic material, contributing to the cycling of nutrients and energy within ecosystems.
Matching the following terms and definitions. 1. adaptive radiation a pattern of evolution in which very different species evolve from one common ancestor 2. coevolution a pattern of evolution in which two species evolve in relation to each other 3. convergent evolution a theory of evolution that states that a species evolves by consistent, small, steps 4. divergent evolution a theory of evolution that states that a species evolves in spurts of rapid change and then no change 5. gradualism a pattern of evolution in which similar characteristics evolve between two unrelated species 6. punctuated equilibrium a pattern of evolution in which slightly different species evolve from one common ancestor NEXT QUESTION ASK FOR HELP TURN IT IN
Answer:
1. a pattern of evolution in which very different species evolve from one common ancestor divergent evolution
2. a pattern of evolution in which two species evolve in relation to each other coevolution
3. a theory of evolution that states that a species evolves by consistent, small, steps gradualism
4. a theory of evolution that states that a species evolves in spurts of rapid change and then no change punctuated equilibrium
5. a pattern of evolution in which similar characteristics evolve between two unrelated species convergent evolution
6. a pattern of evolution in which slightly different species evolve from one common ancestor adaptive radiation
Explanation:
Adaptive radiation and divergent evolution are two similar mechanisms of evolution of species from a common ancestor. The main difference is that in divergent evolution new species form from a pre-existing species, while in adaptive radiation diversification of a species into various new forms occurs.
Gradualism and punctuated equilibrium are two ways of the evolution of a species with the difference that gradualism occurs slowly.
Convergent evolution leads to the development of structures that are similar but have developed independently and those structures are then called analogous structures.
Because flamingos spend most of their time in water, heat is easily lost through their legs and feet. Scientific studies have suggested that flamingos often stand on one leg while resting, keeping the other leg close to the body. Which factor does this behavior regulate?
Body temperature.
The body's at the right temperature.
Water is cold.
One foot in water will lose a lot of heat from the flamingo but if the other one is close to the body, it will stay warm.
This is a way to keep the temperature regulated and prevent bad functions or failure from colder temperatures.
Answer:
Body temperature
Explanation
edg.enuity answer
Which of the following is false? Question 1 choices Choice A., The actions of both the beta and alpha cells in the pancreas are stimulated or inhibited by the amount of glucose they detect in the blood as it passes through the pancreas. Choice B., In the pancreas, the action of the beta cells opposes the action of the alpha cells in regulating blood glucose levels. Choice C., High blood glucose levels can result from an overproduction of insulin. Choice D., The pancreas releases glucagon into the blood in response to low blood sugar and releases insulin into the blood in response to high blood sugar.
Answer:
Choice C., High blood glucose levels can result from an overproduction of insulin
Explanation:
Blood sugar levels are regulated by two pancreatic hormones—insulin and glucagon. When blood sugar levels increase, insulin is released (beta cells of the pancreas), it binds to its receptors and consequently increase glucose uptake by cells, which effectively lowers blood glucose levels. On the other hand, when blood sugar levels decrease, glucagon is released (alpha cells of the pancreas), it binds to its cell receptors, and causes glucose to be released into circulation, thereby increasing blood glucose levels.
Adolescence causes physical changes to the body. True or False
Homology and homoplasy produce similar traits. What is the key difference?
a. homologous traits are more similar than traits due to homoplasyb. homoplasy is much more common than homologyc. only homology results from evolution by natural selectiond. whether or not the traits were inherited from a common ancestor
Answer:
d. whether or not the traits were inherited from a common ancestor
Explanation:
Homology is a term used in the evolution biology to describe similar traits among two or more different species that came from a common ancestor species. On the other hand, homoplasy also refers to similar traits among different species but that evolved independently.
An example of homology are the forelimbs of frogs, birds, rabbits, and lizards.
An example of homoplasy is the eye.
double-stranded DNA molecule is being transcribed, only part of which is shown below. If the molecule is translated from left to right, one of the nucleotides shown in bold would be the first transcribed in this small molecule. 5'-ATGATCGGATCGATCCAT-3' 3'-TACTAGCCTAGCTAGGTA-5' Which of the following is the correct mRNA produced from the transcription of this DNA molecule?
a. -3'-UACUAGCCUAGCUAGGUA-5'
b. -5'-UACUAGCCUAGCUAGGUA-3'
c. -3'-AUGAUCGGAUCGAUCCAU-5'
d. -5'-AUGAUCGGAUCGAUCCAU-3'
The correct mRNA produced from the transcription of the DNA sequence 5'-ATGATCGGATCGATCCAT-3' should be 5'-AUGAUCGGAUCGAUCCAU-3', which aligns with option d.
Explanation:The question relates to the process of transcription where a single stranded RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. To determine which mRNA is produced during this process, we must identify the correct base pairing between the DNA template and the mRNA. In RNA, adenine (A) pairs with uracil (U) and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G).
Given the DNA sequence 5'-ATGATCGGATCGATCCAT-3', the correct mRNA should be the complement of this sequence but with uracil (U) replacing thymine (T). Hence, the correct mRNA sequence should be read in the 5' to 3' direction as 5'-AUGAUCGGAUCGAUCCAU-3', matching with option d.
The bold nucleotides indicate the start of transcription, and since transcription proceeds in the opposite direction of the annotation (from 3' to 5' on the template), it confirms that the bold A in the 5'-end of the given DNA would be the first to be transcribed into mRNA.
European rabbits were introduced to Australia in 1859. The rabbits reproduced rapidly in their new environment, displaced other animals and overgrazed vegetation. In an attempt to reduce the rabbit population, a deadly virus was introduced in 1951. When the virus was first introduced, the rabbits died in large numbers, but the death rate decreased over time. What statement best explains the decrease in the rabbit death rate? A) The virus had a short life span and died out with the rabbits. B) Natural selection favored rabbits that were resistant to the virus. C) The rabbits died of natural causes and the introduced virus did not work. D) Young rabbits exhibited a learned behavior and began to avoid being infected by the virus.
Answer:
B) Natural selection favored rabbits that were resistant to the virus
Explanation:
Most likely, virus resistance occurred over time, as a consequence of mutation. Individuals that carried the resistance mutation become favourable by natural selection.
Natural selection is evolutionary mechanism which favours traits of an organism that help him survive and reproduce (increase organism's fitness). In the example above, resistant rabbits that survived had the favorable trait (resistance) by natural selection.
Final answer:
The decrease in the rabbit death rate is best explained by natural selection, which favored rabbits that were genetically resistant to the virus, leading them to survive, reproduce, and pass on their resistance to their offspring.
Explanation:
The statement that best explains the decrease in the rabbit death rate after the introduction of a deadly virus in Australia in 1951 is B) Natural selection favored rabbits that were resistant to the virus. As the virus killed a large number of the rabbit population, those few rabbits that had some natural resistance to the virus were more likely to survive and reproduce. Over time, the offspring of these resistant rabbits would inherit this resistance, leading to a population of rabbits that were less affected by the virus and therefore a decrease in the death rate among the rabbit population as a whole. This process is a clear example of natural selection at work, where a beneficial trait - in this case, resistance to the virus - becomes more common in the population over time because it confers a survival advantage.
The factor being changed by the person doing the experiment in a controlled study is called the
Answer:
Independent Variable
Which derived characteristic is shared by at least four organisms? Large brain Lungs Mammary glands Placenta
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Match each fossil with the layer where it’ll be present based on these conditions: Dinosaurs existed before birds. Corals existed between trilobites and amphibians. Trilobites are the oldest fossils. Dinosaurs are younger than amphibians. Birds are the youngest species to be observed in this stratum. Layer A is the top layer.
a - Birds
b - Dinosaurs
c - amphibians
d - corals
e - trilobites
Answer:
Assuming that layer A is the top and the youngest soil layer and E is the most ancient layer, the fossils that correspond to each layer are: A- Birds; B- Dinosaurs; C- Amphibians; D- Corals; and E- Trilobites.
Explanation:
There are two groups of fossils. In body fossils, the remains of the living organism are preserved by drying, freezing, mineralizing, or petrifying. Trace fossils are footprints of the living organism. Most fossils are formed when living organisms get buried; soft tissues decompose, and hard tissues (like bones, shells or seeds) are replaced with sediments. Fossils get buried and become part of the soil. With time, different layers of soils are generated at the top. The youngest fossils are found in the top (younger) layers of soil and older fossils will be found at the bottom (older) layers of soil.
With respect of the order: because Corals existed between Trilobites and Amphibians, they have to be grouped, and because Trilobites are the oldest fossils, the order (older to younger) is Trilobites, Corals and Amphibians. Then the youngest fossils are Birds, but dinosaurs are younger than birds.
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The first question is correct because Darwin brought to light the theory of evolution, or changes in organisms. The second question is also correct. I looked up diagrams of plant cells on google and could not find a centriole. Hope that helped!
Answer:
b. Life forms on Earth are unchanging
d. Centrioles are not found in plant cells
Explanation:
a. Darwin
People in Victorian England believed all three ideas.
Darwin challenged only the idea of unchanging life forms.
B. Plant cells
Centrioles are present in animal cells but not in those of higher plants
In animals, they may help in spindle formation during mitosis.
However, spindle fibres form in plants without the aid of centrioles.
1.) Which main-sequence stars on the Hertzsprung-Russell (H-R) diagram are the least massive?
blue
orange
red
yellow
2.) Stars of which color have the highest surface temperature?
red
orange
blue
yellow
3.) Neutron stars, smaller than white dwarfs, are thought to be remnants of _____.
supernova events
red giants
black holes
nucleosynthesis
4.) Another name for the interstellar matter that will eventually form a star is _____.
supernova
red giant
black hole
nebula
5.) What theory states that the universe began in a violent explosion?
big bang
Hubble’s law
big crunch
Doppler effect
Answer:
1. Red
2. blue
3. Supernova events
4. Nebula
5. Big Bang Theory
Explanation:
Answer:
1. red
2.blue
3.supernova events
4.nebula
5.big bang
Explanation:
A long folded tube inside the body attached to the stomach where nutrients in the food are absorbed is ________
Answer:
The Answer is Small Intestine
Explanation:
A small intestine is attached to the stomach and goes all the way to the anus. Despite it's name it is not really small. It was average size. 20 feet long and about one inch thick in diameter. However, the size can greatly vary in some people from as small as 10 feet to as large as 34 feet.
As our food passes through the small intestine, small fibers start to absorb as much nutrients and minerals it can from the food.
Along with humans it is found in every four-limbed animal and is particular large in herbivors.
Which of the following is true of vertebrates with four-chambered hearts?
There is a partial gas exchange in one chamber of the heart.
There is a partial mixing of oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood.
There is no mixing of oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood.
There is a complete mixing of oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood.
Answer:
There is no mixing of oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood.
- -
The right atrium and right ventricle of the human heart pump oxygen-poor blood to the lungs and the left atrium receives oxygen-rich blood. They never mix.