Answer:
A molecule made primarily of amino acids with carbohydrate side chains would be described as a glycoprotein.
Endocytosis is the process of bringing substances into a cell
The structural framework of a cell is the cytoskeleton.
Small structures in the nucleus of cells responsible for producing ribosomal subunits are called nucleolus
The sequence on tRNA that is opposite to the codon on mRNA is the anticodon
The process during which a cell eats itself is referred to as autophagy
Explanation:
A glycoprotein is a protein that also contains carbohydrate side chains (i.e. it is not made up solely of amino acid chain). Glyco=sugar, so this is an easy way to remember what glycoproteins are. The carbohydrate side chains are covalently attached to the protein after the polypeptide has been synthesised and the protein has formed its structure. Glycoproteins are often important components of the cell membrane.
Endocytosis (endo means within, and cytosis means relating to the cell) refers to processes in which cells bring substances inside the cell. The substance is internalised by the movement of the cell membrane, which eventually envelopes the substance entirely and forms a vesicle. There are three different types, phagocytosis (cell eating), pinocytosis (cell drinking) and receptor-mediated endocytosis, which involves cell signalling through membrane receptors).
The cytoskeleton is an important structure, helping the cell maintain its shape, structure and internal organization. It also helps with cell movement and cell division. The cytoplasm is made up of different types of proteins that form microtubules and filaments, that work in a variety of ways to help the cell move, divide, form a stable structure and organise the organelles and other components.
The nucleolus is a sub-compartment of the eukaryotic nucleus that is principally known for its role in the transcription of ribosomal RNAs and ribosomal subunits, and is therefore crucial in ribosome biogenesis The nucleolus is not membrane bound, but it is a dense structure that is easy to identify in the mammalian nucleus.
tRNAs (or transfer RNAs) are important the translation of an mRNA sequence into a polypeptide sequence. The mRNA sequence can be divided into codons, each specifiying a particualr amino acid. The codons are translated into an amino acid sequence by tRNAs, which carry an anticodon sequence. tRNAs each possess an amino acid, and can recognise the mRNA codon through their anticodon, thereby assembling the correct sequence of amino acids in a synthesising protein.
Autophagy is an important process in the body, whereby unhealthy or damaged cells are targeted for destruction. This allows for the regeneration of new cells. This process involves a tightly regulated system, where cells are broken down and their components are recycled. This is an important anti-cancer mechanism.
A glycoprotein is a molecule made primarily of amino acids with carbohydrate side chains. Endocytosis is the process of bringing substances into a cell. The structural framework of a cell is the cytoskeleton.
Explanation:Molecule made primarily of amino acids with carbohydrate side chains:A molecule made primarily of amino acids with carbohydrate side chains is a glycoprotein. Glycoproteins are proteins that have carbohydrate groups attached to them. These carbohydrate side chains can have various functions, such as cell-cell recognition and cell signaling.
Process of bringing substances into a cell:The process of bringing substances into a cell is called endocytosis. Endocytosis is a cellular process in which the cell membrane invaginates, forming a vesicle that brings in extracellular molecules or particles into the cell.
Structural framework of a cell:The cytoskeleton is the structural framework of a cell. It is a network of protein filaments that provides structural support, maintains cell shape, and facilitates cell movement.
Small structures in the nucleus responsible for producing ribosomal subunits:The small structures in the nucleus responsible for producing ribosomal subunits are nucleoli. Nucleoli are dense regions within the nucleus where ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is synthesized and ribosomal subunits are assembled.
Sequence on tRNA opposite to the codon on mRNA:The sequence on tRNA that is opposite to the codon on mRNA is the anticodon. The anticodon is a three-nucleotide sequence on tRNA that is complementary to a specific codon on mRNA. It ensures the correct pairing between codons and amino acids during protein synthesis.
Process during which a cell eats itself:The process during which a cell eats itself is referred to as autophagy. Autophagy is a cellular process in which damaged organelles or proteins are wrapped in a membrane and digested by lysosomes.
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Destructive waves erode the coastline in a number of ways. Identify the term that describes when air becomes trapped in joints and cracks on a cliff face and when the wave breaks, the trapped air is compressed which weakens the cliff and causes erosion.
Answer:
Hydraulic action
Explanation:
Coastal erosion poses a significant threat to both human life and aquatic wildlife species. As climatic phenomena become more common and glaciers continue to melt, causing sea levels to rise, erosion also becomes more prevalent and affect coastal ecosystems.
Hydraulic action is one the main types of coastal erosion. It occurs when the air is trapped inside the cracks and joints. Therefore, when waves break in the cliff, this trapped air becomes compressed, leading to the erosion of these parts of the coastline. This is extremely harmful as people that live near coastlines become unprotected from floods and storms.
A client undergoes a total hip replacement. Which statement made by the client indicates to the nurse that the client requires further teaching?/422563363/chapter-42-prepu-nursing-management-patients-with-musculoskeletal-trauma-flash-cards.
Answer:
I don't know if I'll be able to get off that low toilet seat at home by myself.
Explanation:
The total hip replacement surgery is performed in the patient that have injury in their hip part and the prosthetic hip is used in the surgery. The defects in the body parts can be corrected by this surgery.
The client concern about the use of the toilet seat requires further teaching. The patient is not allowed to bend the hips and requires the devices like raised toilet seat while using the washroom and abduction pillow for the prevention of the hip dislocation.
Theodor Schwann and Matthias Schleiden were major contributors to the Cell Theory as we know it. In 1839 Schwann published a book including a summary of his observations into three conclusions about cells: 1. The cell is the unit of structure, physiology, and organization in living things. 2. The cell retains a dual existence as a distinct entity and a building block in the construction of organisms. 3. Cells form by free-cell formation, similar to the formation of crystals (spontaneous generation). Which one of Schwann's statements is no longer accepted as truth? A) Cells are found in both living and nonliving entities. Eliminate B) Cells are distinct identities, not just building blocks. C) Cells form via free cell formation from existing cells only. D) Cells come from free cell formation similar to spontaneous generation.
Answer:
D) Cells come from free cell formation similar to spontaneous generation.
The claim, which is also a component of Virchow's explanation of the cell theory, is that the cells developed from previously existing cells, hence d is the correct option.
What is cell theory?Rudolph Virchow was a German biologist who constructed his own hypothesis on the research of other scientists, including Theodor Schwann.
After conducting several research, Virchow disproved the theory of spontaneous generation and insisted that not all cells differentiate, but only a subset of them do.
Although Virchow wasn't the one to originally propose the theory that cells originate from already existing cells, he was the one to popularize the idea and add it to the original hypothesis that all living things are composed of cells.
Therefore, cells come from free cell formation which is similar to spontaneous generation is no longer accepted, hence d is the correct option.
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Liza is an early-maturing girl who just reached menarche. She is very upset and is having a difficult time adjusting. Which of the following is the most likely reason for Liza's feelings?a. Liza was unprepared for menarche; her mother hadn't even told her about it yet.b. All of Liza's friends had already reached menarche and she felt left out.c. Liza was well prepared for menarche and had learned a lot from her peers.d. All of Liza's siblings are boys and she feels uncomfortable.
Answer:
Liza was unprepared for menarche; her mother hadn't even told her about it yet.
Explanation:
The body of the teenagers undergoes through the different physical and physiological change. Both girls and boys becomes reproductively mature and has changed in the voice and development of special physical characters.
The girls starts shows menstruation. The start of the menstruation is known as menarche. The girls should give prior knowledge and support during this stage. In case of Liza, she was unprepared for the menarche and has no prior knowledge. The Liza's mother did not give her any knowledge.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
As a leading microbiologist during the 1800s, _______disproved the theory of_______and completed several studies leading to the germ theory of disease.
Answer:
Pasteur disproved the theory of abiogenesis
Explanation:
Louis Pasteur was the scientist who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation. Pasteur disproved the theory of abiogenesis by using swan-necked flask. He used two swan-necked flask in which media was present and he heated the media to sterile it.
Then he broke the neck of one flask and observed that after some time the broth in broken neck flask showed growth but the unbroken necked flask remained sterile.
So he concluded that flask with swan-necked do not allowed microbe and air passed to the media while air can easily pass to media in broken neck flask which allowed microbe to grow.
He also gave germ theory of disease which says that disease is caused by microorganisms.
The most obvious change as children move from the sensorimotor to the preoperational stage is an increase in __________.
Answer:
symbolic activity
Explanation:
A Swiss developmental psychologists named Jean Piaget propounded the theory of cognitive development, which explains how human intelligence and knowledge is being developed and used as an individual progresses from infancy through adulthood.
Piaget’s theory of development describes this cognitive development of the human intelligence in 4 stages which are: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational and formal operational stage.
The first stage is the sensorimotor stage is observed from birth through ages 18-24 months. At this stage, the child's cognitive development increases as he interacts with his environment and learns how to crawl, stand, and walk.
As children move to the second stage which is the preoperational stage, they begin to develop some symbolic activities such as early language development, which increases at the end of this stage.
The most significant change as children enter the preoperational stage from the sensorimotor stage is the development of symbolic thought and language skills, although their understanding remains intuitive and non-logical.
Explanation:The most obvious change as children transition from the sensorimotor to the preoperational stage is an increase in their symbolic thought and use of language. The preoperational stage is a period between the ages of 2 to 7 where children begin to develop language, imagination, and memory, which allows for the growth of symbolic thought. However, in this stage, while they become adept at using symbols and engaging in pretend play, they show limitations, such as egocentrism and a lack of understanding of the principle of conservation. They may demonstrate a belief that quantity changes when an object's appearance changes, like assuming there is 'more water' in a taller, thinner glass after it has been poured from a shorter, wider one.
Transmission of information along the axon takes place via an electrochemical process called the _____.
Answer: Neurotransmission
Explanation:
The transfer of the information from one neuron to another takes place through the release of the chemical substances from the axon of one neuron to the dendrite of another via synaptic junction.
The chemicals that is transferred between two neurons is known as neurotransmitter and the process is known as neurotransmission.
The brain consists of multiple neurons and this is how the information is transferred across the brain and body.
Some pigs learned to pick up and deposit wooden coins in a piggy bank, but soon the pigs were more often dropping the coins and pushing them with their snouts. This best illustrates the concept of ________ in operant conditioning.a) Conditioned reinforcementb) latent learningc) generalizationd) biological predisposition
Answer:
Biological predisposition.
Explanation:
Operant conditioning may be defined as the form of the learning that are mainly associated with the punishments and rewards of an individual. John B. Watson introduces the concept of operant conditioning.
The learning of the pigs to pick the coins and its deposition in the bank is considered as rewarded with some conditions. The biological predisposition occurs in the memory of the pigs as this increases the likelihood works of the pigs.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
The relationship between abstract virtues (principles) and ________ (practice) is often difficult to grasp.
Answer:
Values
Explanation:
A virtue is a characteristic of a person that supports individual well being and moral excellence. They are also called principles.
Values on the other hand are what is culturally acceptable.
The relationship between them is that values are desirable qualities whereas virtues are rules.
Sometimes it is difficult to grasp the relationship between the two since most people presume they are similar.
Angiosperms, flowering plants, and gymnosperms, cone-bearing plants, reproduce using egg, sperm, and produce seeds. In gymnosperms, like the tree seen here, sperm and eggs can be found in different cones. What is the most common way these trees undergo pollination?
Final answer:
Gymnosperms primarily rely on wind pollination for reproduction, where male cones release pollen that is carried by the wind to female cones containing ovules. The positioning of male and female cones on the tree aids in promoting cross-pollination.
Explanation:
The most common way that gymnosperms, such as coniferous trees, undergo pollination is through wind pollination. In this process, the male cones release pollen, which is a fine powder containing male gametophytes that produce sperm. The pollen is then carried by the wind to reach the female cones, which contain the ovules and the female gametophytes. The female cones are typically larger and located higher on the tree, whereas the male cones are generally smaller and found lower. This strategic placement reduces the chances of self-pollination and promotes cross-pollination between different trees, enhancing genetic diversity.
Gymnosperms, which include conifers such as pines, rely on this method because they do not produce flowers to attract pollinators. As a result, they depend on the wind to transport pollen between the male and female cones, facilitating sexual reproduction and the eventual development of seeds.
Most gymnosperms, such as conifers, undergo pollination through wind dispersal.
This method is highly efficient and relies on the wind to carry pollen from male cones (which produce pollen grains containing sperm) to female cones (which contain egg cells).
When the wind blows, it carries the lightweight pollen grains over considerable distances, increasing the chances of fertilization. Once the pollen lands on the receptive surface of the female cone, fertilization occurs, leading to the formation of seeds.
This process allows gymnosperms to reproduce successfully without the need for external agents like insects or animals. Thus, wind pollination is the most common way gymnosperms undergo pollination, ensuring their continued survival and propagation in various environments.
The combination of dominant tree species in Eastern forests will likely change in the future. Some forest types, including spruce/fir and maple/beech/birch, may shrink significantly or disappear altogether, depending on how greatly carbon dioxide emissions increase in the future. How would you adapt your behavior to create a different scenario, one in which the was no substantial change in the tree species over time? Select the tactic that would be of NO help.
A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint.
B) Consider alternate energy resources that are not carbon-based: solar or wind energy.
C) Eat locally-produced and organic food; cur meat and dairy consumption.
D) Manage lands for restoration and watershed conservation.
Answer:
The tactic which will be of no help will be A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint.
Explanation:
Increasing demand for green products will require the cutting down of trees for meeting up the needs. Hence, lesser the trees, more will be the carbon dioxide as trees tend to take up carbon dioxide and use it in the process of photosynthesis.
Also, by using green products, our carbon footprint will not be reduced because the amount of carbon dioxide we release will remain the same. Hence, option A is the correct option.
The substantial change in the tree species over time A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint. Therefore , A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint is correct .
The relationship between the increasing demand for green products and the potential consequence of cutting down trees presents a complex environmental challenge.
While green products aim to reduce environmental impact, the production process and raw material extraction may counterintuitively contribute to deforestation, leading to a higher concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Trees play a crucial role in sequestering carbon dioxide through photosynthesis, a process that helps mitigate climate change by converting CO2 into oxygen.
Therefore, cutting down trees to meet the demand for resources may exacerbate the issue of rising carbon dioxide levels.
It's essential to carefully consider the sustainability of sourcing practices for green products to avoid inadvertently contributing to deforestation.
Furthermore, the claim that using green products does not reduce our carbon footprint needs clarification.
While it's true that some green products may still have associated carbon emissions in their production, transportation, and disposal, the overall environmental impact is often lower compared to conventional alternatives.
Adopting a comprehensive approach that includes sustainable sourcing, production, and disposal practices can contribute to a more significant reduction in carbon footprint, even if it may not eliminate it entirely.
Addressing the growing demand for green products requires a holistic and sustainable approach that considers the environmental impact throughout the product's life cycle.
Balancing this demand with the preservation of trees and mindful resource management is essential for mitigating the adverse effects on atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
_____ on college campuses increases the likelihood of other risky behaviors, such as smoking cigarettes, using drugs, and having multiple sexual partners.
Answer: Heavy drinking
Explanation:
Heavy drinking in the college campus increases the chances of the misbehave among students and other people.
There can be risky behavior, such as smoking cigarettes, drugs or having sex with multiple partners.
These behavior gets favored in effect of alcohol. The person is not conscious and can behave in a very bad way to the people around him.
A patient's history, physical exam, and pulmonary function testing have culminated in a diagnosis of chronic obstructive bronchitis. The nurse who is providing care for this patient will understand that the effects of the disease are primarily attributable to:A. A reduction in oxygen binding sites on erythrocytes
B. Decreased respiratory drive
C. Autoimmune of alveoli
D. Chronic mucus hypersecretion
Answer:
The correct option is D.
Explanation:
The chronic obstructive bronchitis is characterized by irreversible and persistent flow obstruction, followed by bronchial inflammation, in response to harmful particles or gases (biomass) exposure. There is an increase in the secretory glands and cells in the submucosa, which causes chronic mucus hypersecretion, which leads to the overproduction of mucus and the production of a particularly thick mucus, aggravated by a bad and inefficient ciliary cleaning function and a cough not treated properly, it weakens the respiratory muscles. The damage in chronic bronchitis is due to excess mucus production, with mucoiciliary dysfunction, secondary to persistent bronchial inflammation. The main responsible for this excessive mucus are the overproduction of secretion originated in the cells and the decrease in the elimination of said mucus.
Which of the following contributed to the current high prevalence of drug-resistant infectious diseases such at tuberculosis?
Options:
* Inappropriate supervision of treatment
* Delay in treatment
* Mutation of bacteria
* Virulence variation
* All of the listed choices are correct
Answer : All of the listed choices are correct
Explanation:
In many cells, the adhesion to the extracellular matrix through integrins causes the activation of kinases in the cytoplasm. This suggests that:_______________.
Answer: There is presence of tumor.
Explanation: The adhesion of cells to extracellular matrix (EMC) through integrins ( cell-EMC binding molecules, which are collagens, laminins and fibronectin) causes the activation of kinases in the cytoplasm.
However, kinanes helps in controlling the epithelial cell differentiation and upholding the epithelial tissues. This is done by the addition of phosphate groups to a substrate protein which is termed Protein phosporylation. Then, the kinases direct the affairs of the cell and it's activities. For example, it determines the cell division, anabolic and catabolic activities of the cell, movement of ions between the cell and it's environment (signal transduction), protein functions and etc.
Conclusively, since the activities of the cell like cell division and protein functions is dictated by the kinase, reduction in cell division that gave rise to rapid growth is put on hold. Hence, the tumor is been suppressed.
Note: the binding of cell-EMC is regulated by Transforming Growth Factor (TGF) β.
A scientist wants to perform a test that will indicate whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA. Testing for the presence of which of the following is most appropriate in this situation?
The options are :
A) phosphate
B) nitrogen
C) guanine
D) uracil
E) thymine
Answer:
The correct answer is E) thymine
Explanation:
DNA and RNA are both made up of nucleotide. There are two major difference between DNA and RNA. In DNA deoxyribose sugar is present and in RNA ribose sugar is present.
The other difference is in DNA thymine nucleotide is present which makes complementary base pairing with adenine but in RNA thymine is replaced by uracil.
Therefore testing for the presence of thymine is most appropriate in this situation to find out whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA.
Final answer:
To determine whether a nucleic acid sample is RNA or DNA, scientists can test for the presence of the sugar ribose or deoxyribose and the base uracil or thymine. Techniques like southern and northern blotting along with nucleic acid probes are utilized to detect specific sequences indicative of RNA or DNA.
Explanation:
A scientist determining whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA should test for the presence of the sugar ribose or deoxyribose, as these sugars are indicative of RNA and DNA, respectively. Additionally, the presence of the base uracil is characteristic of RNA, while thymine is found in DNA. RNA can easily be distinguished from DNA by testing for uracil, which is not present in DNA.
Methods such as southern and northern blotting are used to detect specific sequences in DNA and RNA samples respectively. For DNA, nucleic acid hybridization or polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to detect a specific sequence. In the case of RNA, sequencing techniques involve nucleotide-specific cleavage with RNases.
Finally, using nucleic acid probes is another method to distinguish between DNA and RNA. These probes will only bind to nucleic acid samples containing sequences complementary to the probes. Since uracil is unique to RNA, a probe targeting uracil-containing sequences would confirm the presence of RNA in the sample.
Which of these statements about the afferent division of the nervous system is true?It ascends with sensory information.It descends with motor information.It descends with sensory information.It ascends with motor information.
It ascends with sensory information.
Explanation:
The peripheral nervous system has two parts: Efferent division and the afferent division.The afferent division of the nervous system consists of the sense organs and sensory nerves.The efferent division consists of the motor nerves and the effector organs.The afferent division is thus, concerned with reception of sensory stimulus and directing the nerve impulse to the mixed nerves.The efferent division is concerned with receiving the impulse from the mixed nerves and directing it towards the effector organ to produce a suitable response to the stimulus.To enhance diagnostic specificity, DSM-5 replaced the previous "not otherwise specified" (NOS) designation with two options for clinical use: Other Specified [disorder] and Unspecified [disorder]. Which of the following statements about use of the Unspecified designation is true?
a. The Unspecified designation is used when the clinician chooses not to specify the reason that criteria for a specific disorder were not met.
b. The Unspecified designation is used when there is no recognized Other Specified disorder (e.g. recurrent brief depressions, sexual aversion).
c. The Unspecified designation is used when the individual has fewer than three symptoms of any of the recognized disorders within the diagnostic class.
d. The Unspecified designation is used when the individual presents with symptomatology
of disorders in two or more diagnostic classes.
e. The Unspecified designation is used when the clinician believes the condition is of a
temporary nature.
Answer:
The statement that is true about unspecified designation is that the unspecified designation is used when the clinician chooses not to specify the reason that criteria for a specific disorder were not met.
Explanation:
It is dependent on the conscience of the clinician whether or not to disclose and diagnosis before a solid evidence of the persistence of a specific disorder is obtained. The clinician is not bound to make a disclosure in case of an unspecified designation but he can also choose to give out some primary information.What name is given to the process in which the information encoded in a strand of mRNA is used to construct a protein?
Answer:
Translation
Explanation:
Translation is the process where mRNA is used to form polypeptide chains which fold into proteins.
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A geyser erupts when pressure is released from a hot spring.
True or False?
A geyser erupts when pressure is released from a hot spring -True
Mark as BrainliestAnswer: this is true
Explanation: When the surface water reaches boiling point, it errupts and cool down when boiling point becomes low.
Phytoplankton use sunlight to gain energy through photosynthesis. As a result of the Law of Conservation of Energy, phytoplankton cannot gain more energy than it consumes. A closed system consisting of an aquarium, phytoplankton, and sunlight is set up. Which of the following methods would best demonstrate the Law of Conservation of Energy? (3 points)
A. Measure the mass and temperature of the water. Then cover the aquarium to block the sunlight and measure the mass of the phytoplankton.
B. Change the closed system to isolated, so that energy can move out of it. Then measure the amount of energy that leaves.
C. Measure the mass of the phytoplankton before and after photosynthesis. Add the mass of the water.
D. Measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton and the amount of light entering the aquarium. Then measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton after exposure to the light and determine the difference
Answer: D: Measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton and the amount of light entering the aquarium. Then measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton after exposure to the light and determine the difference.
Explanation: This will describe the law as the amount of energy leaving the system will be the same as measured before exposure to light.
True or False: Meiosis halves the chromosome number, whereas mitosis maintains the same chromosome number.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Meiosis is the kind of cell division that results in the production of daughter cells with each cell having half number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Meiosis is the cell division employed by reproductive cells to produce gametes/sex cells. Meiosis occurs in two stages i.e. Meiosis I and II. The chromosome number reduces by half in gametes in order to ensure that after fertilization of both male and female gamete, the resulting organism has the correct set of chromosomes. e.g diploid organism produces haploid gametes which fuses to produce a diploid organism again.
Mitosis is another type of cell division that results in identical daughter cells. They are identical in the sense that they possess the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell that divided. For example, a diploid cell undergoes mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells.
A scientific theory is
A. a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and never been disproven.
B. a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and only been disproven a few times.
C. an opinion.
D. a hypothesis that has been tested at least five times.
E. an idea based on a person's experience or knowledge.
Answer:
The correct answer is A. a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and never been disproven.
Explanation:
A hypothesis is an idea or guess or a proposed explanation of any phenomena. When the hypothesis is checked and proved by many experiments and cannot be disproven by anyone then it considered as a scientific theory.
Therefore a scientific theory is a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested by the performing different experiments and never been disproven. For example theory of evolution, natural selection which tell us about the evolution of organism on earth which is proven by Darwin. So the right answer is A.
The study of the matter around us is called science.
The correct answer to the question is option A which is a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and never been disproven.
What is a theory?A theory is a rational type of abstract thinking about a phenomenon or the results of such thinking. The process of contemplative and rational thinking is often associated with such processes as observational study or research.A hypothesis is defined as an idea based on a person's experience or knowledge. when the hypothesis is proven right after the rigorously tested in the field it will become theory because the statement he said is right and can not be changed.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
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What will occur if solution A containing 400 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute is separated by a biological membrane from solution B containing 600 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute?
Answer:
The volume of solution B will increase
Explanation:
In a non-penetrating solute, there is denial of a solute to cross the cell membrane.This implies that the solute will not be able to cross the cell membrane. So if the biological membrane is serving as a partition between a solution A containing 400 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute and a solution B containing 600 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute, The volume of solution B will increase.
Vitamins are specific organic compounds that are required in the diet to aid in digestion of :__________
a) proteins.
b) provide essential amino acids.
c) prevent deficiency diseases.
d) provide fiber
Answer:
c) prevent deficiency diseases.
Explanation:
Vitamins are essential and specific organic compounds that are required mainly in the diet to facilitate the digestion of protein, however, they are not categorized with amino acids and as such they can't provide essential amino acid.
Vitamins are categorized into fat soluble vitamins(A,D,E and K) and water soluble vitamins (B anc C). Vitamins provides several to hundred of roles, majorly they helps to prevent deficiency diseases. Few of their roles are:
Vitamin A helps to prevent blindness. Food sources to obtain vitamin A include spinach, cod liver oil etc.
Vitamin D helps to maintain skeletal structure due to the calcium content embedded in Vitamin D. Therefore, lack of vitamin D can cause rickets.
Vitamin B-complexes e.g B-1 (thiamin) helps in synthesis of certain hormones, B-2 (riboflavin) which asssists in breakdown of fats and energy production. It can be gotten from Milk, youghurt etc. Deficiency in these vitamin B-complexes can cause heart-related disease, skin disorders, anemia etc.
You identify a rare purple plumed parrot. When you cross the parrot to a true breeding white parrot, you get ½ white and ½ purple parrots. When you cross two purple parrots you get 1/3 white parrots and 2/3 purple parrots. Which of the following best explains this result?a. The purple allele is lethal in the homozygous state.b. White is dominant to purple.c. The white allele is lethal in the homozygous state.d. The purple allele is lethal in the heterozygous state.
Answer:
a. The purple allele is lethal in the homozygous state
Explanation:
You cross a purple parrot with a true breeding (homozygous) white parrot and you get 1/2 purple parrots and 1/2 white parrots. This result can only happen if the purple parrot is heterozygous and the white parrot is homozygous recessive (if any of the parents had been homozygous dominant, 100% of the offspring would have had the dominant phenotype).
Then: Pp (purple) X pp (white) ---> 1/2 Pp, 1/2 pp
When you cross two purple parrots you get 1/3 white parrots and 2/3 purple parrots. The 2:1 phenotypic ratio is typical of a lethal allele in the homozygous state.
In a cross of two purple parrots: Pp
X Pp, one would expect the genotypic ratios 1 PP : 2 Pp : 1pp and the phenotypic ratios 3 Purple : 1 white.
But the PP genotype is lethal, so those individuals die and the only purple parrots we see are the heterozygous ones.
Final answer:
The best explanation for the observed 2:1 ratio of purple to white parrots when two purple parrots are crossed is that the white allele is lethal in the homozygous state, causing the absence of white homozygous offspring.
Explanation:
The crossing of the rare purple plumed parrot with a true breeding white parrot yielding 50% white and 50% purple parrots indicates that purple is a dominant trait while white is recessive. This is further supported by the second cross between two purple parrots yielding 1/3 white and 2/3 purple parrots, which suggests that white allele is lethal in the homozygous state. When heterozygous parents with the lethal allele are crossed, we would expect a 2:1 ratio of purple to white parrots because the white homozygous (recessive lethal) parrots do not survive.
According to Mathis Wackernagel, ecological overshoot is caused by an overuse of resources. Which of the following practices could contribute to ecological overshoot?1. Switching to renewable energy sources with lower CO2 emissions2. Recycling materials after they are used3. Catching fish more rapidly than the population can sustain4. Replanting trees as timber is harvested
Answer:
Option (3)
Explanation:
Ecological overshoot usually refers to the condition when the demand of the population within an ecosystem is higher than the capacity of the ecosystem to recycle and regenerate the available resources that have been extracted and obtained. This creates an imbalance in the ecosystem, as a result of which the overshoot occurs in the ecosystem.
From the given options, the catching of more number of fishes than the population requires, causes a dis-balance in the ecosystem, affecting the aquatic system where more fishes are being obtained. This results in ecological overshooting.
Thus, the correct answer is option (3).
Broccoli, cabbages, and brussels sprouts all descend from the same wild mustard and can still interbreed. These varieties were produced by
Answer: Artificial selection
Explanation:
Artificial selection is the process of intentional breeding of plants or animals by selecting the parents with good features so as to produce new plants that have the qualities of both parents.
Wild cabbage was the uncultivated form of Brassica oleracea. It was chosen a parent plant for growing broccoli, brussel sprouts and cabbage by artificial selection. The variety was chosen to produce plants with large flower buds, edible stems and large leaves through artificial selection.
Broccoli, cabbages, and Brussels sprouts are descendents of the wild mustard plant and were cultivated through selective breeding to produce distinct varieties.
Explanation:Broccoli, cabbages, and Brussels sprouts are all descendents of the same wild mustard plant, Brassica oleracea. These varieties were produced through selective breeding by humans over thousands of years. By selecting and breeding plants with desired traits, such as larger flower buds for Brussels sprouts or compact rosettes for cabbage, humans were able to create these distinct vegetables.
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Anaphylactic shock is the most severe form of systemic allergic reaction. Immunologically medicated substances are released into the blood, causing vasodilation and an increase in capillary permeability. What physiologic response often follows the vascular response in anaphylaxis?
a. Uterine smooth muscle reactionb. Laryngeal edemac. Broncodilationd. Gastrointestinal relaxation
Answer:
b. Laryngeal edema
Explanation
Laryngeal edema is a possible physiological response that will follow Anaphylactic shock. The Edema results to the decreased size of the laryngeal lumen.
It presents as respiratory difficulty or post extubation stridor which is presence of inspiratory noise as a result of increased effort in breathing due to narrowing of the airway. Other symptoms include fainting and low blood pressure.
Ira brags about how wonderful he is, talks endlessly about his accomplishments, and pushes people to admire him. He lashes out when his inflated sense of importance is threatened by others. Ira would rate high in a measure of ________.
Answer:
Narcissism
Explanation:
Narcissism is a kind of personality disorder in which a person has a sense of admiration, fragile self-esteem and heightened sense of self importance. People with such disorder face serious problems in their relationships and are always disappointed if not given favors and admiration. Other people do not prefer to stay around a narcissist. They have a tendency to monopolize communication ad perceive other people inferior to themselves.