Answer:
Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
Explanation:
A ball squats activity is the dorsoflexion of ankle and contraction of muscles around the joint to produce maximal contraction. People who have an unstable knee shall not perform ball squat in depth and shall decrease the range of motion. These people with knee instability shall have a knee flexion restricted to 50-60° so that shear forces applied on posterior joints are minimized.
The __________ of exercise determines the health and fitness benefit of the exercise. A. frequency B. intensity C. time D. type Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D
Answer:
The "Type" of exercise determines the health and fitness benefit of the exercise
Explanation:
The type of the exercise we perform will determine the health of the person and also the fitness potential of the person but when we talk about the frequency or the intensity and the time will not help us in determining the health benefit and fitness benefit. Various types of exercises are there that helps in reducing weight, maintaining heart health and also exercises are there which can help in maintaining the blood pressure and also decrease the risk of cancer.
The Type of exercise determines the health and fitness benefit of the exercise. The correct option is C.
Thus, The type of exercise we do will define our health as well as our fitness potential.
The frequency, intensity, and time of the activity will not assist us determine the benefits to our health and fitness.
There are many different sorts of workouts that can help with weight loss, heart health maintenance, blood pressure maintenance, and even lowering the chance of cancer.
Thus, The Type of exercise determines the health and fitness benefit of the exercise. The correct option is C.
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A 69 Y/O female with a right hip fracture was admitted to the orthopedic unit from the emergency department shortly after falling in her yard. Thirty-two hours later she underwent surgery to repair the hip and returned to the orthopedic unit post operatively. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 2 pressure injury over the coccyx.
Question :
The question is incomplete. The full question is as follows :
A 69 Y/O female with a right hip fracture was admitted to the orthopedic unit from the emergency department shortly after falling in her yard. Thirty-two hours later she underwent surgery to repair the hip and returned to the orthopedic unit post operatively. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 2 pressure injury over the coccyx.
Review of her hospital admission assessment record revealed incomplete assessment of this area due to difficulty turning the patient related to her level of pain and large size. Documentation during her 8 hour stay in the emergency department record was also incomplete. Initial documentation of the pressure injury on the coccyx was found in the patient's operating room record.
For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:
a. Community Acquired Pressure Injury
b. Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only
c. Hospital Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Answer:
B) Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only .
Explanation:
The reason for the above mentioned answer is that pressure injury was first documented greater than 24 hours after arrival to the hospital.
It is unknown if the patient obtained the pressure injury in the emergency department or on the orthopedic unit.
Therefore, this pressure injury is recorded as a hospital acquired pressure injury.
Hence option B) hospital acquired pressure injury. is the right answer.
A client is diagnosed with dumping syndrome after bariatric surgery. Which findings on the nursing assessment correlate with this diagnosis?
Answer:
In the diagnosis of dumping syndrome it could be find tachycardia, feeling hot, sweat, sickness, diarrhea and different symptoms associated with hyperglycemia.
Explanation:
The dumping syndrome is a situation in which food, specially sugar, goes too quickly from the stomach to the duodenum. It’s also called rapid gastric emptying. It can be one of the complications associated to a gastric or esophageal surgery. It can be early dumping which happens 10 to 30 minutes after a meal, or a later dumping which occurs 2 to 3 hours after a meal.
Under HIPAA means:______.a) a health plan.b) healthcare clearing house.c) a healthcare provider who transmits any health information in electronic form in connection with a HIPAA transaction.
Answer:
c) A healthcare provider who transmits any health information in electronic form in connection with a HIPAA transaction.
Explanation:
Under HIPAA means a healthcare provider who transmits any health information in electronic form in connection with a HIPAA transaction.
Healthcare Insurance portability and Accountability Act also known as HIPAA was established in 1996. According to this act, the government will provide healthcare supervision, healthcare data storage and security facilities to the medical institutions for better medical tracking and cures.
What was the most important role of Tolman’s "cognitive maps" study in the development of cognitive psychology? a. It made us aware of the importance of taking a scientific approach to understanding the mind. b. It forced us to question our prior conceptualization of the mind. c. It made us seriously consider the benefits of using rats in experiments related to human cognition and behavior. d. It entirely refuted the tenets of behaviorism and then led Tolman to establish the "new" view of cognition.
Answer:
Option D is correct
Explanation:
Tolmans experiment demonstrated that organisms can learn even without receiving immediate reinforcement in the form of practice which the behavioral theory emphasizes.
Which of the following are factors that are associated with worse health outcomes in the U.S.? Unemployment, poverty, and environmental pollution
Answer:
Unemployment, poverty
Explanation:
Poverty- income inequality , nonclinical factors (education, employment, race, ethnicity, and geography) and health care payment and delivery system reforms are some of the factors that are associated with health outcomes in the U.S.
A nurse says, "We have so many drills and safety checks for everything. It is almost like we are preoccupied with the possibility of failure." How should the charge nurse respond to this statement?
Answer:
"Highly reliable organizations think about the possibility of failure and what to do to avoid it."
Explanation:
This statement reflects the quality of highly reliable organisations (HRO) who develop an organizational culture reflecting quality assurance and management. HROs are not immune to adverse events but have strong systems and procedures to reduce the occurrence of adverse events and human errors causing medical emergencies. Moreover, these organizations also work on their emergency protocols to prevent any major life loss.
You just finished a workout at the gym and ate a couple of eggs washed down with a chocolate soy protein drink. The dietary protein replenishes ___________ first.
Answer: Body Protein
Hope it helps youre welcome
Answer:
The body protein
Explanation:
After a work out, the protein replenished first when an individual takes in a high protein diet is the body protein.
Dr. Grath believes that imitation and reinforcement contribute to language development. Dr. Grath’s views are most consistent with those of…
Final answer:
Dr. Grath's views on language development through imitation and reinforcement are most consistent with B. F. Skinner's reinforcement theory and Albert Bandura's social learning theory, highlighting a combination of environmental influences and biological predispositions in language acquisition.
Explanation:
Dr. Grath's belief that language development is influenced by imitation and reinforcement aligns with behaviorist B. F. Skinner's views. Skinner's well-known theory posits that language is learned through reinforcement and feedback, such as parental approval or comprehension in social interactions. Accordingly, simple phrases like "me juice" from a child are positively reinforced when a caregiver responds appropriately, enhancing language learning.
However, Noam Chomsky challenged this view, introducing the concept of an innate language acquisition device (LAD), suggesting that humans are biologically predisposed to learn language. Modern researchers bridge these theories, recognizing that language development is a complex interplay of nature and nurture.
Additionally, Albert Bandura's social learning theory underscores the importance of imitation and observational learning in acquiring not just language, but a range of behaviors and social norms. This context adds weight to theory that language learning is influenced by social and environmental factors, as well as biological predispositions, within a supportive cultural and societal framework.
The nurse determines that a client recently diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis understands discharge teaching upon which client statement?
Answer:
"I have to call my doctor so I can get antibiotics before seeing the dentist."
Explanation:
Once an individual is diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis, there is a high risk for repeated episodes. Thus, such client is placed on Antibiotic prophylaxis before or after dental procedures so that this will prevent the client from having any further infections. Unless there is an evidence of heart failure, such patient has no routine restriction on sodium.
The nursing instructor is teaching the students about rheumatic fever. She tells the students that it is an important cause of heart disease and is very serious mainly for which reason?
Answer:
It can affect the heart valves and the heart walls.
Explanation:
Rheumatic fever is a very important cause of heart disease because it can affect the muscle of the heart and the valves of the heart causing valve stenosis or valve regurgitation, which leads to a heart that can not efficiently pump blood to all the body.
Which points are important when giving practical knowledge to nursing students about preventing complications in the hospital?
Answer:
The most important points to prevent complications in the hospital are: teaching nursing students that they are not accountable if a patient is harmed, as well as encouraging them to work as nursing assistants when not attending classes and telling them they should notify the nursing supervisor when they are delegated tasks they are not prepared for.
In the first trimester, sharp pains in the lower abdomen are common. They are not repetitive but often are associated with position changes or fetal movements. What are these indicative of?
Answer:
Growing pains.
Explanation:
The gestation period may be defined as the time required for the fetal development in the mother's womb. The gestation period is of nine months in case of humans.
The pregnancy period involves the different trimester period of fetal development. The first trimester represent the last day of the menstrual period and remains till 12 weeks. The fetal movement can be felt in this period. This mainly indicates the growing pains in female.
Thus, the correct answer is growing pains.
The sharp pains in the lower abdomen during the first trimester of pregnancy are normal and indicate the body adapting to pregnancy.
Explanation:The sharp pains in the lower abdomen experienced in the first trimester of pregnancy can typically be attributed to the growing uterus and stretching of the ligaments. These pains are not repetitive but can occur with changes in position or fetal movements. They are generally considered normal and are indicative of the body adapting to the changes of pregnancy.
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A defining characteristic of high reliability organizations (HROs) is sensitivity to operations. Which of the following is a manifestation of this characteristic?
a. Near misses are treated as opportunities for improvement.b. Process anomalies and outliers are quickly identified.c. Ongoing efforts are to simplify solutions to problems.d. Decision making is strongly hierarchical.
Answer: B.Process anomalies and outliers are quickly identified.
Explanation: (HROs) known as high reliability organizations are organizations that have successfully Prevented, avoided or averted the recurrence of a given or some hazards which were being expected to occur.
High reliability organizations are very efficient and effective in management of it operations, they are very quick to identify process anomalies and outliers are quickly handled to avert future reoccurrence.
A 42-year-old fair-skinned woman of Irish origin presents with an abnormal skin growth that was first noted 7 years ago. On examination, a 2 X 3 cm lesion is noted over her left bicep. Which of the following historical elements most increases the suspicion that the lesion is malignant?
A) No evolution in size since onset, but mild intermittent pruritus over the last 2 years.
B) Proximal location, that is, over the bicep rather than the distal arm.
C) Minimal but discernible increase in size over the past 6 months.
D) No evolution in size since onset, but uniformly darkly pigmented color.
E) Presence of similar pinkish tan lesions on the sun‐exposed areas including the face and hands.
Answer:C) Minimal but discernible increase in size over the past 6 months.
Explanation:
Irrespective of the presence and length of a lesion, any discernible alteration in size or other characteristics (such as color or regularity of borders) requires further evaluation. Since its start, no change in size but moderate sporadic pruritus over the last 2 years is wrong. While any skin lesion may develop into malignancy, a long-standing, essentially unchanged lesion carries a very low probability of malignancy. Since the beginning no evolution in size but uniformly darkly pigmented color is wrong. Although dark lesions are sometimes of concern, lesions should be assessed specifically for color variation, in particular blue and black mixed with white and red(Which represents inflammatory processes and melanoma scarring characteristics). It is wrong to have identical pink tan lesions in the exposed areas of the skin, including the face and hands. In general, skin cancer is characterized by an initial focus of malignancy with distal metastases on organs other than the skin; multiple similar skin findings that do not meet the criteria in the mnemonic ABCDE‐EFG (Asymmetry, Border Irregularity, Color Variations, Diameter > 6 mm, Evolving, Elevated, Solid, Growing) are more likely to be benign. The proximal position is incorrect, that is to say, over the bicep rather than the distal limb. Proximal or distal location has no effect on the risk of malignancy.
Which of the following is NOT a reason why communicable diseases, such as pneumonia, kill fewer people today than they did in the past?A. continuing medical advancesB. slower population growthC. improved living conditionsD. better preventive treatment
Answer: B. Slower population growth
Explanation:
Slower population growth is Not a reason why communicable diseases like pneumonia kill fewer people today than they did in the past, this is because in present times irrespective of the population growth, newer approaches have been introduced to improve quality of life and hence reduce the risk of communicable diseases.
Approaches like; continuing medical advances, improved living conditions, better preventive treatment. Etc.
The disease that can get transmitted and passed from the infected person to the normal person is called communicable disease. The disease can get transmitted through the factors like food, skin contact, bites, faecal and oral contaminations etc.
The slower population growth is not the reason for the less mortality rate of pneumonia.
What are the reasons for the less spreading of disease?Nowadays science has progressed a lot and devised many precautions and medical inventions that can slow the rate of infection of the disease outbreaks.The conditions and the standards of living have improved a lot compared to the past and has also affected the disease infection rate in the new populations.With the advancement, the population has better access to preventive treatment procedures compared to the past methods.Therefore, option B is not the reason.
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Describe several important generalizations about homeostatic control systems, including the difference between steady state and equilibrium.
Answer:
The homeostatic control system is associated with preserving stable environmental conditions internally and thus performs regulatory response functions. The important generalizations of this homeostatic control system are
1) Stabilize the internal environment by balancing inputs and outputs.
2) If the internal environment feedback is negative, a change in variable is being regulated.
3) The homeostatic control system has no control on external environment and continuous change in the external environment changes the features of internal environment also.
4) Any regulated variable have a narrow range of normal values so that the internal environment can be strictly kept constant provided the external environment is not rapidly changing.
5) The homeostatic control system cannot maintain the entire internal environment by keeping a narrow normal range of variables.
Explanation:
1) The internal environment variables can be made stable by balancing the variations in the magnitudes of input and outputs.
2) The variable responses are changed by moving the variables in the opposite direction to balance the negative feedback. Therefore the variables are moved back to the initial point or set point.
3) Any changes produced in the external environment produces a direct effect on internal environment variables. Thus internal variables cannot be kept constant but the impact of external environment on these variables can be minimized.
4) It is observed that set points of some variables are reset by the homeostatic control systems i.e. they can be raised or lowered within physiological ranges.
5) It is recommended to keep a hierarchy of variables in terms of importance so that the important variables within the internal environment are altered to maintain all other variables in normal ranges.
An analyst produces a table of financial ratios on liquidity and profitability for a healthcare firm. The most likely phase of the financial statement analysis framework is:_____________.
Answer:
Processing Data
Explanation:
The Data processing or the processing of data is the term which defines a series of operations which uses information provided to produce an understandable result.
Common data processing operations includes
ValidationcalculationClassificationSortingInterpretationorganization and transformation of data.An analyst producing financial ratios on liquidity and profitability is in the phase of financial statement analysis that involves computing and interpreting these ratios to understand the financial health of a firm.
When an analyst produces a table of financial ratios focusing on liquidity and profitability for a healthcare firm, they are likely engaged in the phase of the financial statement analysis framework where the computation and interpretation of ratios are center stage. This phase involves evaluating an organization's assets and their capacity to cover day-to-day expenses. Liquidity ratios assess the quickness with which assets can be converted to cash to meet short-term liabilities, while profitability ratios measure the ability of the firm to generate returns relative to its revenue or assets. This detailed analysis helps to determine the health of a firm's financial position in comparison to industry benchmarks and trends over time.
You are caring for a 72-year-old client who has been admitted to your unit for a fluid volume imbalance. You know which of the following is the most common fluid imbalance in older adults?
A) Hypovolemia.B) Dehydration.C) Hypervolemia.D) Fluid volume excess.
Answer:
B.) Dehydration
Explanation:
Ruby is angry at her little sister for wearing Ruby's favorite shirt without permission and then spilling paint on it. Ruby walks over to her sister and yells at her. Ruby's actions are an example of ________.
Answer:
The correct answer is - aggression.
Explanation:
Aggression is the behavior to intend to harm an individual emotional, verbally, or emotionally. On the Basis of the different type of the intention and harm these are categorize in different types.
Emotional or impulsive aggression is the type of aggression is takes place an individual shows aggression for less intent or small quantity of forethought. Thus, the correct answer is - aggression.
Martha is convinced she has extrasensory perception. Explain the specific abilities Martha would display if she had each of the following forms of ESP: - Telepathy - Clairvoyance - Precognition Then briefly explain why you should doubt her claims.
If Martha has extrasensory perception, she could be claiming telepathy (reading thoughts), clairvoyance (knowledge without any direct contact), or precognition (predicting the future). However, these claims should be viewed with doubt, as there's no definitive scientific proof supporting such abilities.
Explanation:If Martha believes she has extrasensory perception, she is asserting she has abilities beyond the five common senses. Here's what would her abilities would imply for each form of ESP:
Telepathy: Martha would be able to read other people's thoughts or transfer her own thoughts directly to others without any physical interaction or use of senses.Clairvoyance: She would be able to obtain information about a person, place, event, or object without any contact or direct knowledge. In effect, seeing things beyond the normal range of sight.Precognition: Martha could predict future events before they happen.However, such claims should be met with doubt as there is no scientific evidence backing the existence of such abilities. While people have reported experiences that seem like ESP, these are often explained by more mundane factors like chance, coincidence, or subconscious cues.
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If Martha had telepathy, she would be able to read thoughts and communicate without words. If she had clairvoyance, she would be able to perceive information about distant objects or events. If she had precognition, she would be able to foresee future events. However, skepticism is necessary as there is no scientific evidence supporting the existence of these abilities.
Explanation:TelepathyIf Martha had telepathy, she would display the ability to read other people's thoughts and communicate with them without using traditional verbal or physical methods. For example, she might be able to accurately guess what someone is thinking or communicate with them through their minds.
ClairvoyanceIf Martha had clairvoyance, she would display the ability to perceive information about objects, people, or events that are not present in her immediate surroundings. For instance, she might be able to accurately describe a location she has never been to or predict future events with a high degree of accuracy.
PrecognitionIf Martha had precognition, she would display the ability to foresee future events before they happen. She might have vivid dreams or visions about specific events that later come true, or she might have a general intuitive sense of things that are going to happen.
However, it is important to approach Martha's claims with skepticism. Extraordinary claims, such as having extrasensory perception, require extraordinary evidence to be considered valid. There is currently no scientific evidence that supports the existence of telepathy, clairvoyance, or precognition. These claims are often attributed to psychological biases, coincidence, or trickery.
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A client with esophageal varices has severe hematemesis, and a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is inserted. What design and purpose does the tube have?
While assessing the muscle tone of a client, the client demonstrates a full range of muscle motion against gravity with some resistance. What score on the Lovett scale can be given to the client?
1. Fair (F).2. Good (G).3. Trace (T).4. Normal (N).
Answer:
Good.
Explanation:
Lovett score might used for the categorization the different range of the motions of the individual. The resistance is used as an important factor while determining the Lovett score. The different score that are included are good, normal, trace and fair.
The Lovett score of the fair is given when the client shows the full range of motion and no resistance is offered. The Lovett score with the good score is given when the client shows the full motion range. The client must show some resistance against the gravity.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
Answer:
The correct answer is - option 2.
Explanation:
Lovett score is the scoring method on the basis of the resistance and range of the muscle against the gravity. According to the score method there are four different categories namely, Good, fair, trace and normal.
According to this good is category that is include full motion of against the gravity with some resistance. In the provided question it is the similar to the good category of the Lovett score.
Thus, the correct answer is - option 2.
A pneumothorax is a possible complication of COPD. Symptoms will depend on the suddenness of the attack and the size of the air leak. The most common, immediate symptom that should be assessed is:____________.
Answer:
Sharp, stabbing chest pain.
Explanation:
COPD (Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) is the long persistent inflammatory disease of the lungs. This might cause the excess production of mucus, cough and difficulty in breathing.
Pneumothorax is the condition of the collapsed lung and included in the category of COPD. The peneumothorax can cause mild to the severe chest pain and stabbing in the lungs. The breath becomes short and the condition require proper medication.
Thus, the answer is sharp, stabbing chest pain.
Nutrient density refers to ___. 1. calories in relation to weight 2. nutrients in relation to serving 3. size nutrients in relation to portion size 4. nutrients in relation to calories
Answer: 4). Nutrients in relation to calories.
Explanation:
Nutrient density refers to foods that provides more nutrients relative to its energy content (calorie).
Two types of food could contain the same nutrients but different calories, the one with lesser calories is said to be more nutrient dense than the other.
For example; A glass of tomato juice and a glass of Orange juice, both contain almost the same number of nutrients but Orange juice contains more calories. Therefore the glass of tomato juice is more nutrient dense.
Nutrient density refers to the nutrients in relation to calories. It measures the amount of essential nutrients a food provides per calorie.
Nutrient density refers to the nutrients in relation to calories. It measures the amount of essential nutrients a food provides per calorie. Foods that have a high nutrient density provide more essential nutrients in relation to their calorie content.
For example, fruits and vegetables are considered to have a high nutrient density because they contain a variety of vitamins, minerals, and fiber while being low in calories.
On the other hand, foods high in added sugars or unhealthy fats have a low nutrient density because they provide a lot of calories but few essential nutrients.
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Kendyl is born with a congenital disorder that prevents her eyes from sensing light; her fraternal twin brother Gabe is born with normal vision. Compared to Gabe, Kendyl will likely have _______.a. no circadian cycle
b. a shorter circadian cycle
c. a longer circadian cycle
d. the same circadian cycle
Answer:
C) a longer circadian cycle
Explanation:
Circadian cycle is a 24-hour physiological cycle which runs internally in the biological organisms in the brain and controls the sleepiness and alertness in individuals thus is also known as the sleep-wake cycle. The cycle runs in organisms of animals, plants and fungi.
The circadian cycle is controlled by the hypothalamus but the external factors like the intensity of light and dark also influence the circadian cycle.
In the given question, if the person has a disease which prevents eyes from perceiving light or the phase of darkness increases then the circadian cycle changes and become longer as the low light sends a signal to the brain to release melatonin which makes your body tired.
Therefore longer darkness means the increased circadian cycle and thus Option-C is the correct answer.
Anya is growing up in an orphanage and receives very little emotional, mental, or physical stimulation and nurturing. Anya's brain development will likely be ______.a. the same as peers raised in enriched environments.b. greater than peers raised in enriched environments.c. depressed compared to peers raised in enriched environments.
d. greater than her biological parents.
Answer:
c. depressed compared to peers raised in enriched environments.
Explanation:
Anya is growing up in an orphanage and receives very little emotional, mental, or physical stimulation and nurturing. Anya's brain development will likely be depressed compared to peers raised in enriched environments.
This is because the other peers are getting more stimulus and nutrition that is important for the development and upbringing of the a healthy and active mind.
A woman is currently pregnant; she has a 5-year-old son and a 3-year-old daughter. She had one other pregnancy that terminated at 8 weeks. Her gravida and para are___________.
Answer:
The correct answer is - Para is 2, Gravida is 4.
Explanation:
Gravida and para are both the terms related to the birth and pregnancy in medical field. Para is the short form of the parity is known for the number of the births has had after twenty week pregnancy.
Gravida is the terms that are the total number of confirmed pregnancy a woman had.
Thus, the correct answer is - Para is 2, Gravida is 4
A client is admitted with a possible electrolyte imbalance. The client is dis-oriented and weak, has an irregular pulse, and takes furosemide (Lasix). The client most likely suffers from:_______.
Answer:
Hypokalemia
Explanation:
The level of potassium in blood is too low
The nurse is assessing a client's risk for sexually transmitted infections. Which statement by the client would be cause for concern?A. "I needed RhoGAM after my last pregnancy. Will I need it again?" B. "I am unsure who the father of the baby is. I will be raising it alone." C. "I only want my family to see the baby after it is born." D. "I am not sure if I want to keep the baby. It is a hard decision."
Answer:
B. "I am unsure who the father of the baby is. I will be raising it alone.
Explanation:
This statement "I am unsure who the father of the baby is. I will be raising it alone." is a big and enough concern for the nurse assessing a client's risk for sexually transmitted infections. That statement clearly depicts that she has been having multiple sex partners in the past. Sex with multiple partners have a greater and higher tendency of putting the client and fetus in bad places of being at risk for a sexually transmitted infection.