The pulmonary circuit transports blood to the lungs. The blood is oxygenated there and then carried back to the heart. Gaseous exchange happens in the lungs:
Carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood into the air in the alveoli.
Which of the following statements about deuterostomes is false?All deuterostomes have a similar pattern of early embryonic development.All deuterostomes are triploblastic and have three tissue layers.All deuterostomes have a coelom.All deuterostomes exhibit radial symmetry in their bodies.
The false statement is: All deuterostomes exhibit radial symmetry in their bodies.
For example, phylum Chordata contains animals that don’t have radial symmetry.
Deuterostomes share characteristics such as coelom that forms from folds of archenteron, radial, indeterminate cleavage, anus formed from blastopore.
The major distinctions between these two groups of animals (Bilateria) deuterostomes and protostomes are in their embryonic development. Another difference is that most Protostomes have schizocoelous development (cells fill in the interior of the gastrula and that is the way the mesoderm is formed) On the other side, in Deuterostomes, the mesoderm forms through invagination of the endoderm (enterocoelic pouching).
If ATP were replaced by a nonhydrolyzable ATP analog in different cell types, which of the following processes would NOT be negatively affected? - transport of vesicles from Golgi to the ER - G-actin polymerization into F-actin - transport of vesicles from ER to the Golgi - cytoplasmic streaming
ATP has long been known to play a central role in the energetics of cells both in transduction mechanisms and in metabolic pathways, and is involved in regulation of enzyme, channel and receptor activities. Numerous ATP analogues have been synthesised to probe the role of ATP in biosystems (Yount, 1975; Jameson and Eccleston, 1997; Bagshaw, 1998). In general, two contrasting strategies are employed. Modifications may be introduced deliberately to change the properties of ATP (e.g. making it non-hydrolysable) so as to perturb the chemical steps involved in its action. Typically these involve modification of the phosphate chain. Alternatively, derivatives (e.g. fluorescent probes) are designed to report on the action of ATP but have a minimal effect on its properties. ATP-utilising systems vary enormously in their specificity; so what acts as a good analogue in one case may be very poor in another. The accompanying poster shows a representative selection of derivatives that have been synthesised and summarises their key properties.
In energy-transducing reactions, ATP is normally hydrolysed between the ß and γ phosphate groups, and modification of this region produces slowly hydrolysable or non-hydrolysable analogues (e.g. AP.PNP). These derivatives can be used to assess the role of binding energy in the transduction process. Non-hydrolysable analogues are also useful in crystallographic studies, as are the stable complexes formed between protein-bound ADP and phosphate analogues, such as vanadate. Another route to making a stable ATP state is the use of Co(III) or Cr(III) metal substitutes that display very slow ligand-exchange rates. ATPγS is hydrolysed in many systems but usually shows a much reduced rate compared with ATP. This has been exploited in kinase/phosphatase studies, because once an amino acid side chain has been thiophosphorylated it may be resistant to rapid dephosphorylation. Sulphur analogues in the ɑ and ß positions give rise to stereoisomers that can be used to probe the specificity of binding sites. Introduction of bulky organic probes on the phosphate chain generally gives poorly binding analogues, but this factor is exploited in caged-ATP derivatives that contain a photolabile derivative (McCray and Trentham, 1989). Flashes of 350-nm light release ATP within milliseconds and can be used to initiate reactions in vitro or within cells. Different caging groups have different absorption characteristics and photolysis rates.
Introduction of spectroscopic probes (absorption, fluorescent, EPR and NMR probes) is best done through the adenosine or ribose groups, depending on the specificity of the particular binding site. Although ATP absorbs strongly in the UV light (259 nm) range, this signal is usually masked by protein absorbance and cannot be exploited in spectroscopic studies. The adenine ring can be modified to shift the absorption to >300 nm (e.g. 2-SH-ATP), but, in general, fluorescent derivatives provide more-sensitive probes. Among the apparently subtlest of changes is the substitution of an adenosine with a fluorescent formycin ring. However, the slightly longer C-C bond that connects to the ribose results in this analogue preferentially existing in the syn conformation, in which the base is positioned over the ribose, rather than the extended anti conformation, which is required by most protein-binding sites. In any event, this naturally occurring nucleoside base has not been available from commercial sources for several years. Substitution of groups in the 8 position of adenine also tends to favour the syn conformation.
If p = 0.65, what is q?
a, .65
b, .35
c, .55
the best answer u got here is B.35
hope this helps and mark brainliest
The value of 'q' cannot be determined from the information provided - 'p' and 'q' could represent any number, and without an equation relating them we cannot specify the value of 'q'.
Explanation:The question doesn't provide enough information to determine the value of 'q'. In algebra, variables such as 'p' and 'q' can represent any number, so without more context or a equation relating 'p' and 'q', we can't definitively say what 'q' equals. According to the options given, 'q' could be any of .65, .35, .55, or any other number.
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Choose all the answers that apply. The temperate deciduous forest: has four seasons is the driest biomes receives moderate rainfall has the most species diversity has the least species diversity
The correct statements are:
- has four seasons;
- receives moderate rainfall;
The temperate deciduous forests are located in the mid latitudes, almost exclusively on the Northern Hemisphere. They have four seasons, spring, summer, autumn, and winter. The springs and autumns are the periods in which most of the precipitation occurs, and they have mild temperatures. The summer is drier, and relatively warm, while the winters are cold and usually have solid amounts of snow. The species diversity is neither high nor low, but it is moderate.
The temperate deciduous forest has four seasons, receives moderate rainfall, and has a high species diversity, but not the highest. This biome features significant biodiversity influenced by its four distinct seasons and moderate rainfall, but it is neither the driest nor most species-diverse biome.
Explanation:
The temperate deciduous forest biome broadly encompasses characteristics such as having four distinct seasons, receiving moderate rainfall, and hosting a significant amount of species diversity. However, it is not the driest nor the most species-diverse biome. The four seasons include winter, spring, summer, and fall which influences the vegetation and animal life cycles. The moderate rainfall it receives also contributes to its lush vegetation. The biodiversity in this biome is high but rainforests have the highest level of species diversity.
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_____ describes what happens around the time of death
A. The cadaver dog
B. The taphonomy profile
C. Mass grave excavation
D. Excavation
the answer is D hope it helps
Transcription in bacteria differs from transcription in a eukaryotic cell because __________________________. (a) RNA polymerase (along with its sigma subunit) can initiate transcription on its own. (b) RNA polymerase (along with its sigma subunit) requires the general transcription factors to assemble at the promoter before polymerase can begin transcription. (c) the sigma subunit must associate with the appropriate type of RNA polymerase to produce mRNAs. (d) RNA polymerase must be phosphorylated at its C-terminal tail for transcription to proceed.
The correct answer is: (a) RNA polymerase (along with its sigma subunit) can initiate transcription on its own.
More differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription:
• In prokaryotes transcription occurs in the cytoplasm (unlike in eukaryotes in nucleus) and it is simultaneous with translation,
• In prokaryotes there is only one type of RNA polymerase (in eukaryotes there are three types of them).
• There is no sigma subunit in eukaryotes, the initiation of transcription begins thanks to initiation factors.
• Promoter region in prokaryotes contains pribnow box, while in eukaryotes it contains TATA and CAT box.
Transcription in bacteria is different from that in eukaryotes primarily because bacterial RNA polymerase can initiate transcription independently while eukaryotic RNA polymerase requires additional proteins known as transcription factors to start the process.
Explanation:Transcription in bacteria differs from transcription in a eukaryotic cell primarily due to the role and requirements of the RNA polymerase and associated elements in the transcription process. In a nutshell bacterial RNA polymerase (with its sigma subunit) can initiate transcription on its own, but the RNA polymerase in eukaryotes requires the assistance of other proteins known as transcription factors to bind to the promoter region and commence transcription.
In prokaryotic cells such as bacteria, transcription is fairly straightforward - the RNA polymerase with its sigma subunit binds to a particular sequence of the DNA (known as the promoter) and starts the transcription process. The sigma subunit aids in recognizing and binding to the promoter region for transcription initiation.
On the other hand, in eukaryotes, transcription is more complex. The eukaryotic RNA polymerase cannot initiate transcription independently. Rather, specific proteins known as transcription factors must first bind to the promoter region of the DNA. These factors then aid in recruiting the RNA polymerase to the promoter to start transcription. Eukaryotic cells also follow a more regulated transcription process as the cell must produce only the specific pre-mRNAs needed for protein synthesis.
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In a well-balanced ecosystem, squirrels eat nuts, raccoons feed on squirrels, and bears feed on raccoons. It was observed that there were more squirrels and fewer raccoons. This situation indicates that . The least amount of energy from the Sun will be received by the .
Answer:
The situation indicates that squirrels are at lower trophic level in comparison to raccoons, and bear will receive the least amount of energy from the Sun.
Explanation:
In the given food chain, the nuts producing plants are producers, and the squirrels are the primary consumer, the raccoons are the secondary consumer and the bears are the top consumers. In a pyramid, the number of organisms is present highest at the base, and its numbers get reduced as one moves towards the top of the pyramid. It can be witnessed from the given food chain that the squirrels hold the lower level in comparison to raccoons, thus the squirrels are more in number. As one moves towards the top, there is a decrease in the captivation of energy obtained from the Sun, thus, bears who are at the top of the food chain will receive the least amount of energy.
Which is not a characteristic of living things? Organisms can adapt to changes. Organisms respond to changes. Organisms only need water. Organisms are made of cells.
Not a characteristic of living things is organisms only need water.
Which of the following is a factor that determines the rate of impulse propagation, or conduction velocity, along an axon?a) length of the axonb) the number of axon collaterals extending from a truncated axonc) degree of myelination of the axond) whether the axon is located in the central nervous system or in the peripheral nervous system
Answer:
c) degree of myelination of the axon
Explanation:
The myelin sheath covers many axons in central nervous system (CNS) ( by oligodendrocytes) and in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) (by Schwann cells). Their function is to insulate axons and to increase the speed at which information travels from one nerve cell to another.
Nerve conduction velocity is specific to each individual and depend on the level to which that axon is myelinated, but also on an axon's diameter.
Question text The skeleton of an echinoderm is composed of individual plates called
interlocking calcium carbonate plates is the answer.
Select two jobs that require specialized training in agriculture.
produce broker
advertising agent
truck driver
human resources professional
agriculture scientist
Human resources professional and agricultural scientist are required to specialize in training in agriculture.
Human resources professional and agricultural scientist
Which of the following correctly describe a sea urchin?
Select all that apply.
cnidarian
chordate
invertebrate
echinoderm
deuterostome
A sea urchin is correctly described as an invertebrate, echinoderm, and deuterostome. It is not a cnidarian nor a chordate.
Sea urchins are marine animals classified within the Echinodermata phylum, known for their distinctive pentaradial symmetry and spiny body covering. Unlike cnidarians, which include jellyfish and coral, echinoderms have a more complex level of organization and a unique water vascular system. Sea urchins exhibit radial rather than bilateral symmetry that is typical of chordates, and they do not have a notochord, which is a defining feature of the chordates. Furthermore, as deuterostomes, during their embryonic development, the anus develops before the mouth. Therefore, sea urchins, along with starfish and sea cucumbers, are echinoderms. They are also invertebrates because they do not possess a vertebral column or spine, differentiating them from vertebrates which are part of the Chordata phylum. Hence, the terms that accurately describe a sea urchin are invertebrate, echinoderm, and deuterostome.
The development of the male reproductive system occurs in coordination with other human systems. Which of the following is an example of this coordination?
A. The endocrine system releases the hormone testosterone.
B. The muscular system strengthens the uterine wall.
C. The circulatory system restricts blood flow to the testes.
D. The excretory system removes urea from the blood.
I think the answer is A.
Hope this helps.
Male reproductive system works in response to particular hormones. It involves endocrine system that releases hormone testosterone.
What is testosterone?Testosterone is a male hormone that is responsible for masculine characters.
It is very much important for male physical development. In male it regulates libido, development of genital organs, bone mass, distribution of fat, production of red blood cells and sperm, etc.
Thus, option A is correct.
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If a segment of DNA were replicated without any errors, the replicated strand would have the following sequence of nucleotides:
5' - ACTACGTGA - 3'
Sort the following replicated DNA sequences by the type of point mutation each contains (frameshift, base substitution, or neither), as compared to the correct sequence shown above.
Sort the items into the appropriate name as frameshift mutation, base substitution mutation and or neither
5'-ACTCGTGA-3'
5'-ATTACGTGA-3'
5'-ACTACGTGT-3'
5'-ACTAAGTGA-3'
5'-ACTCGTGA-3'-frameshift mutation (number of nucleotides in a DNA sequence is not divisible by three). deletion, one nucleotide in DNA is deleted, in this case A
5'-ATTACGTGA-3'- base substitution, C is substituted with T
5'-ACTACGTGT-3'- base substitution, A is substituted with T
5'-ACTAAGTGA-3'- base substitution, C is substituted with A
Substitution is a type of mutation in whichonly one base is changed. They can be:
• Nonsense mutations-when substitution leads to the formation of a stop codon instead of a codon
• Missense mutations-when one nucleotide is substituted and a different codon is formed
• Silent mutations-when a nucleotide is substituted and the same amino acid is produced
The analysis of DNA sequences shows that 5'-ACTCGTGA-3' and 5'-ATTACGTGA-3' have frameshift mutations while 5'-ACTAAGTGA-3' has a base substitution mutation. The last sequence 5'-ACTACGTGT-3' does not fit into either category.
Explanation:In genetics, different types of mutations can occur during DNA replication. In the provided sequences, these mutations can be categorized as either a frameshift mutation, a base substitution mutation, or neither.
5'-ACTCGTGA-3': This is considered a frameshift mutation, as a nucleotide, 'A', has been removed, causing a shift in the reading frame.5'-ATTACGTGA-3': This also represents a frameshift mutation. In this case, an extra 'T' is inserted which shifts the reading frame in gene sequencing.5'-ACTAAGTGA-3': This can be categorized as a base substitution mutation, as the fifth nucleotide 'C' has been substituted for 'A'.5'-ACTACGTGT-3': This sequence is neither a frameshift nor a base substitution mutation. The sequence remains essentially the same, with only the final 'A' replaced with a 'T', indicating the repetition of a sequence that doesn't lead to either mutation.Learn more about DNA Mutations here:https://brainly.com/question/14067753
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Arrange the processes to show the order in which sedimentary rocks are formed. weathering lithification erosion and transportation sedimentation
Answer:
Weatheringerosion and transportationsedimentationLithificationExplanation:
It begins by rocks being weathered into soil by weathering agents such as water and the sun. The soil is then eroded into rivers by surface runoffs after precipitation. The soil is then transported by the river into water bodies where they fall to the bed as sediments. As the sediments stay long and more sediments settle, applying pressure to the underlying layers, they compact into the sedimentary rock in a process called Lithification.
Answer:
Weathering
erosion and transportation
sedimentation
Lithification
Explanation:
Which of the following cellular environments is conducive to the formation of disulfide bonds within or between proteins? Choose all that apply.a. Nucleusb. Cytosolc. Mitochondriad. Rough ER
The correct answer is: c. Mitochondria and d. Rough ER
Protein disulfide bonds are the links between the sulfur atoms of two cysteine amino acids of the protein and these bonds are part of the secondary and tertiary structure of proteins. Formation of disulfide bonds is very important for the folding and stability of some proteins. Disulfide bonds are mostly found in secretory proteins and lysosomal proteins because of their unstable state in cytosol.
TRUE OR FALSE
Oxygen is absorbed into the bloodstream in the trachea?
False. Oxygen is absorbed in the alveoli sacs of the lungs.
Upon inhalation Air must first pass through the larynx and down to the trachea, which then splits off into two separate bronchial tubes, the bronchial tubes divide into smaller air passages known as the bronchi and those into even smaller bronchioles. The bronchioles end in tiny sacs called the alveoli which transfer the oxygen from the inhaled air to the bloodstream.
It is true.
The respiratory system consists of all the organs involved in breathing. These include the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs. The respiratory system does two very important things: it brings oxygen into our bodies, which we need for our cells to live and function properly; and it helps us get rid of carbon dioxide, which is a waste product of cellular function. .
Which item below is NOT an example of how the general rule for dissolving works?
A.
Oil and water do not mix.
B.
Oil and water mix.
C.
Water and methanol mix.
D.
Methanol and oil do not mix.
E.
Oil and grease mix.
Answer:
B.
Oil and water mix
Explanation:
Everyone knows oil and water don't mix
It had to be A or B, because they oppose each other.
Answer: B. Oil and water mix.
Explanation:
The solubility of substances is governed by: Like dissolves like, which states that polar compounds are soluble in polar solvents and non polar compounds are soluble in non polar solvents.
Oils and grease are non polar in nature due to less difference between the electronegativities of carbon and hydrogen and thus are soluble in non polar solvents only.
Water and methanol being polar solvents get dissolved in each other.
Thus oil and water do not mix as water is polar and oil is non polar.
Which English law allows people to cross private lands in order to follow rights of way
Answer:
Public trust doctrine
Explanation:
The Public Trust Doctrine is English law that allows people to cross private land to follow rights of way.
This doctrine allows people to use some privately owned resources when rights of way need to be secured. This doctrine can be used, for example, on the shoreline between the high and low tides, when citizens need to cross these places, or when public use of private land in that region is required.
The English law that involves crossing private lands on established paths is linked to public rights of way and the legal concept of easements, with modern statutes like the Countryside and Rights of Way Act 2000 establishing legal frameworks for such use.
The English law that allows people to cross private lands in order to follow rights of way typically refers to the legal concept of public rights of way and easements. An easement is a legal right to use another's land for a specific limited purpose. In England, public rights of way are paths which the public are able to lawfully use even if they pass over private land. These rights of way exist under both common law and the modern legal framework established by statutes such as the Countryside and Rights of Way Act 2000, commonly known as the 'CROW Act' or the 'Right to Roam'.
The principle behind such rights often involves the balance between private land ownership and the public's interest in accessing lands for travel and recreation. This is supported by eminent domain, allowing the state to appropriate private land for public use, with fair compensation, subject to legal proceedings.
According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, a child learns to be independent in the __________ stage.
According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, a child learns to be independent in the 'autonomy vs. shame and doubt' stage.
Autonomy vs. shame and doubt' is Erikson's second stage of psychosocial development, which typically occurs between the ages of 1 and 3 years old. During this stage, toddlers are eager to assert their independence and gain a sense of self-rule over their actions and bodies.
This is often referred to as the 'me do it' stage, where children want to perform tasks by themselves, such as choosing their clothes or feeding themselves. Erikson emphasized that it is crucial for caregivers to provide a supportive environment where toddlers can safely explore and make decisions autonomously.
If caregivers are overly strict or critical, the child may start to feel ashamed of their behavior and doubt their abilities, leading to low self-esteem and a lack of confidence. The key is to strike a balance where the child feels safe but also has the freedom to learn and grow from their own experiences.
The lower chambers of the heart are called the _[blank]_.
atria
myocardium
septum
ventricles
The answer is ventricles.
Hope this helps.
Answer: Septum
Explanation: (picture below)
A laboratory animal may eat any one of three foods each day.laboratory records show that if the animal chooses one food on onetrial, it will choose the same food on the next trial withaprobability of 50 percent, and it will choose the other foods onthe next trial with equal probabilities of 25 percent.
yes i agree because it might stay the same or go up who knows
Transcription in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes is similar because
Transcription in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes is similar in terms of initiation, elongation, and termination. However, there are differences such as the location of transcription and the types of polymerases used.
Explanation:Transcription in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes is similar because they both involve three main stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. However, there are some key differences. In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the nucleus and the mRNA transcript needs to be transported to the cytoplasm, whereas in prokaryotes, it occurs in the cytoplasm. Eukaryotes also use three different polymerases to transcribe different subsets of genes, while prokaryotes use a single RNA polymerase.
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding water intake and output by the body?An increase in the amount of beverages taken by mouth would increase the urine output.An increase in fluid taken by mouth would reduce the amount produced by metabolism.An irritation to the colon that leads to diarrhea would increase the proportion of water lost through feces.The proportion of fluid lost by the body as sweat would increase during exercise.
B. An increase in fluid taken by mouth would reduce the amount produced by metabolism
The false statement is that an increase in fluid intake would reduce the amount of water produced by metabolism. Metabolic water production is constant and not influenced by fluid intake. The body maintains water balance through various other mechanisms such as increased urine output, sweat, and water loss through feces.
Explanation:The statement that is FALSE regarding water intake and output by the body is: 'An increase in fluid taken by mouth would reduce the amount produced by metabolism.' The amount of water produced by metabolism is not affected by the amount of fluid intake. Water is generated during the final stages of aerobic respiration in cellular metabolism, which is not influenced by fluid intake. Most water intake comes from liquids and food via the digestive tract, but the water generated by cellular metabolism contributes to about 10% of the body's water availability.
Drinking more beverages would indeed often increase urine output as the kidneys work to expel excess water from the body. Irritation to the colon increasing water loss through feces, and an increase in sweat during exercise, are also both true, as these are both methods the body uses to expel extra water and maintain homeostasis. Therefore, these statements are typically correct.
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Michelle and her students have carried out an experiment similar to the Urey-Miller experiment. What do you think they are likely to find at the end of their experiment?
A. Ocean water
B. Organic molecules
C. An energy source
D. Small organisms
Answer:
(B). Organic molecules
Explanation:
In 1953, Miller and Urey performed an experiment, in which they made conditions similar to conditions present during early earth. In their experiment, Urey and Miller studied chemical origin of life and found that organic molecules were spontaneously formed under early earth conditions.
Hence, Michelle and her students would find organic molecules at the end of their experiment as their experiment was similar to experiment of Urey and Miller.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Final answer:
Michelle and her students are likely to find organic molecules as a result of their experiment, which simulates conditions of early Earth, supporting the idea of abiogenesis.
Explanation:
Based on the Miller-Urey experiment, if Michelle and her students carried out a similar experiment, they are likely to find organic molecules at the end of their experiment. The Miller and Urey experiment was designed to simulate the conditions of early Earth and demonstrated that organic molecules, such as amino acids, could form from inorganic precursors and an energy source like electric sparks that mimicked lightning. This finding provided support for the idea of abiotic synthesis of organic compounds, which are essential for the development of life.
Several hypotheses exist about how life originated on Earth, and the Miller-Urey experiment supports one of them: the abiogenesis or chemical evolution theory. Despite these findings, there is still debate and different hypotheses regarding life's origins since the experiment replicated conditions thought to exist billions of years ago, and the exact process that led from non-living chemicals to living organisms remains unclear.
Which of the following statements correctly describes how Mendel accounted for the observation that traits had disappeared in the F1 generation and then reappeared in the F2 generation?
A) Traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were "hidden" by the dominant ones in the F1.
B) New mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, causing traits that had been lost in the F1 to reappear in the F2.
C) Members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each trait, but members of the F2 had two alleles for each trait.
D) The mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2 plants.
Answer:
A) Traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were "hidden" by the dominant ones in the F1.
Explanation:
Mendel discovered the fundamental theory of heredity: that inheritance involves the passing of genes (he called it discrete units of inheritance), from parents to offspring. Those genes are with two alleles in the genotype, one inherited from the father and other inherited from the mother.
When he cross-bred pure-bred parent (always produced offspring identical to the parent) plants dominant traits were always seen in the offspring, while recessive traits were hidden until the first-generation (F1) hybrid plants were left to self-pollinate. Mendel also noticed that in second-generation (F2) of the offspring 3:1 was ratio of dominant to recessive traits.
Mendel described traits that disappeared in the F1 generation and reappeared in the F2 generation as dominant or recessive. The recessive traits were hidden by the dominant ones in the F1, but could reappear in the F2 when the hybrid F1 plants were crossed.
Explanation:The correct statement that describes how Mendel accounted for the observation that traits had disappeared in the F1 generation and then reappeared in the F2 generation is: "Traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were 'hidden' by the dominant ones in the F1." This is because Mendel observed that when plants with different traits were crossed, the dominant trait appeared in all the F1 hybrid offspring, while the recessive trait appeared to disappear. However, the recessive trait reappeared in the F2 generation when the F1 plants were self-crossed or intercrossed. Mendel proposed that traits were determined by heritable "factors," now known as genes, which came in pairs. If an organism had at least one dominant factor, the dominant trait would be expressed. The observation of a recessive trait in the F2 generation indicated that the organism lacked any dominant factors for that characteristic.
logan has suffered a deterioration of some of his intellectual and physical abilities that has occurred over the course of a long period of time. logan is experiencing the death of brain cells. which condition is occurring?
Answer:
Neurodegeneration
Explanation:
The term neurodegeneration refers to a group of disorders which are characterized by a progressive waste of function or structure of neurons, that in worst cases can include death of neaurons.
Many neurodegenerative disorders such as Parkinson's disease,– including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, Huntington's disease and Alzheimer's disease can occur due to neurodegeneration.
Neurodegeneration can manifest itself in various forms such as lack of physical and intellectual abilities like inability to use muscles or memory loss. These disorders cannot be completely cured and ultimately lead to the death of neurons.
As mentioned in the question, the person suffers from progressive loss of intellectual and physical abilities that has occurred over the course of a long period of time. Therefore, it is most probable that he is having some neurodegenerative disorder.
Hope it helps!
In incomplete dominance, both alleles are expressed in offspring. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
False. Incomplete dominance is when both genotypes are recessive, so instead of both showing up, the phenotype is a combination of both alleles. For instance, if a red flower and white flower crossed and both were homogeneous recessive for their colors, their offspring would be pink.
Answer:
Explanation
Hopes this helps. The answer is false.
Select six operations performed or directed by the nucleus:
1 cell reproduction
2 invasion guard
3 instructions
4 coded information
5 power plant
6 chromosomes
7 exact placement of varieties of cells
8 control center
9 waste disposal
Answer:
cell reproduction,
instructions,
coded information,
chromosomes,
exact placement of varieties of cells,
and control center
Explanation:
Here are the six operations performed or directed by the nucleus: cell reproduction, instructions, coded information, the control center, chromosomes, and waste disposal.
What is a cell?The nucleus plays a crucial role in cell reproduction, which involves the division of cells into two identical daughter cells. This process is known as mitosis, and it is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. The nucleus serves as the control center for the cell, regulating various cellular processes such as metabolism, protein synthesis, and cell division. It receives signals from the cell's environment and sends out instructions to other organelles in the cell. The nucleus stores the genetic information that is responsible for the development, growth, and function of an organism. This information is coded in the form of DNA molecules, which are organized into chromosomes.
Hence, here are the six operations performed or directed by the nucleus: cell reproduction, instructions, coded information, the control center, chromosomes, and waste disposal.
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Which of the following statements about RNA splicing is false?A: Conventional introns are not found in bacterial genesB: For a gene to function properly, every exon must be removed from the primary transcript in the same fashion on every mRNA molecule produced from the same geneC: Small RNA molecules in the nucleus perform the splicing reactions D: Splicing usually occurs after the 5′ cap has been added to the 5' end of the primary transcript.
The false statement is: B: For a gene to function properly, every exon must be removed from the primary transcript in the same fashion on every mRNA molecule produced from the same gene
RNA splicing represents the process of RNA processing in which newly synthesized pre-mRNA transcript is converted into a mature mRNA. This process occurs only in eukaryotic organism and includes the removal of introns and joining together the exons. RNA splicing might occur during or immediately after transcription and it is performed by spliceosome (complex of small nuclear ribonucleo proteins).
The false statement about RNA splicing is that every exon must be removed from the primary transcript in the same fashion for every mRNA molecule from the same gene. Instead, it's the introns that are removed and different combinations of exons can be joined to increase protein diversity.
Explanation:The statement about RNA splicing that is false is B: 'For a gene to function properly, every exon must be removed from the primary transcript in the same fashion on every mRNA molecule produced from the same gene.' This statement is incorrect because instead of exons, it's the introns that are removed during RNA splicing. Exons are expressed sequences that remain in the mature mRNA and code for proteins. In contrast, introns are intervening sequences that get removed to generate the mature mRNA which goes on for translation to form proteins. The process of removal of introns and joining the exons is referred to as RNA splicing.
Moreover, it's not a rigid rule that every RNA molecule from the same gene would undergo splicing in exactly the same way. There is a phenomenon called alternative splicing where different combinations of exons can be joined during splicing leading to different versions of mRNA from the same gene. This is one way of increasing the diversity of proteins that a single gene can produce.
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